How to understand “I had two try”





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"You're not the first one who's had trouble with money," said Mr. Roberts, scrutinizing Mr. Weasley closely. "I had two try and pay me with great gold coins the size of hubcaps ten minutes ago."




I think "I had two try" here means Mr. Roberts had encounter this kind of situation two times. (Is my understanding correct?) I don't quite understand why the singular form of 'try' is being used, instead of the plural form "tries", given the word 'try' is actually an accountable noun. Is it a dialectal usage?










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  • Probably "You're not the first one ... I had two (people) try ..." Where is this passage from? Weasley makes me think of Harry Potter.
    – ColleenV
    2 hours ago










  • @ColleenV: Yes, from Harry Potter. So, you meant 'try' is used as a verb here?
    – dan
    2 hours ago








  • 2




    Yes, it is. He had two [individuals] attempt to pay him with great gold coins. The "try" is a verb, and the phrasing "try and" is a common substitute for the more standard "try to".
    – Gary Botnovcan
    2 hours ago










  • Dan, the non-standard use of 'try and pay' makes this sentence extremely difficult to understand. They are not two different actions. As soon as that is replaced by 'try to pay', i.e. the one action it really was, the meaning is understandable. May I suggest Harry Potter books are an awful resource to use if you want to improve your English. They contain numerous examples of intentionally bad grammar used a form of humour.
    – Ross Murray
    52 mins ago










  • @RossMurray I was on the halfway of it, so I think I should finish it anyway.
    – dan
    25 mins ago

















up vote
1
down vote

favorite













"You're not the first one who's had trouble with money," said Mr. Roberts, scrutinizing Mr. Weasley closely. "I had two try and pay me with great gold coins the size of hubcaps ten minutes ago."




I think "I had two try" here means Mr. Roberts had encounter this kind of situation two times. (Is my understanding correct?) I don't quite understand why the singular form of 'try' is being used, instead of the plural form "tries", given the word 'try' is actually an accountable noun. Is it a dialectal usage?










share|improve this question






















  • Probably "You're not the first one ... I had two (people) try ..." Where is this passage from? Weasley makes me think of Harry Potter.
    – ColleenV
    2 hours ago










  • @ColleenV: Yes, from Harry Potter. So, you meant 'try' is used as a verb here?
    – dan
    2 hours ago








  • 2




    Yes, it is. He had two [individuals] attempt to pay him with great gold coins. The "try" is a verb, and the phrasing "try and" is a common substitute for the more standard "try to".
    – Gary Botnovcan
    2 hours ago










  • Dan, the non-standard use of 'try and pay' makes this sentence extremely difficult to understand. They are not two different actions. As soon as that is replaced by 'try to pay', i.e. the one action it really was, the meaning is understandable. May I suggest Harry Potter books are an awful resource to use if you want to improve your English. They contain numerous examples of intentionally bad grammar used a form of humour.
    – Ross Murray
    52 mins ago










  • @RossMurray I was on the halfway of it, so I think I should finish it anyway.
    – dan
    25 mins ago













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite












"You're not the first one who's had trouble with money," said Mr. Roberts, scrutinizing Mr. Weasley closely. "I had two try and pay me with great gold coins the size of hubcaps ten minutes ago."




I think "I had two try" here means Mr. Roberts had encounter this kind of situation two times. (Is my understanding correct?) I don't quite understand why the singular form of 'try' is being used, instead of the plural form "tries", given the word 'try' is actually an accountable noun. Is it a dialectal usage?










share|improve this question














"You're not the first one who's had trouble with money," said Mr. Roberts, scrutinizing Mr. Weasley closely. "I had two try and pay me with great gold coins the size of hubcaps ten minutes ago."




I think "I had two try" here means Mr. Roberts had encounter this kind of situation two times. (Is my understanding correct?) I don't quite understand why the singular form of 'try' is being used, instead of the plural form "tries", given the word 'try' is actually an accountable noun. Is it a dialectal usage?







meaning-in-context singular-vs-plural






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share|improve this question











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share|improve this question










asked 3 hours ago









dan

3,71622259




3,71622259












  • Probably "You're not the first one ... I had two (people) try ..." Where is this passage from? Weasley makes me think of Harry Potter.
    – ColleenV
    2 hours ago










  • @ColleenV: Yes, from Harry Potter. So, you meant 'try' is used as a verb here?
    – dan
    2 hours ago








  • 2




    Yes, it is. He had two [individuals] attempt to pay him with great gold coins. The "try" is a verb, and the phrasing "try and" is a common substitute for the more standard "try to".
    – Gary Botnovcan
    2 hours ago










  • Dan, the non-standard use of 'try and pay' makes this sentence extremely difficult to understand. They are not two different actions. As soon as that is replaced by 'try to pay', i.e. the one action it really was, the meaning is understandable. May I suggest Harry Potter books are an awful resource to use if you want to improve your English. They contain numerous examples of intentionally bad grammar used a form of humour.
    – Ross Murray
    52 mins ago










  • @RossMurray I was on the halfway of it, so I think I should finish it anyway.
    – dan
    25 mins ago


















  • Probably "You're not the first one ... I had two (people) try ..." Where is this passage from? Weasley makes me think of Harry Potter.
    – ColleenV
    2 hours ago










  • @ColleenV: Yes, from Harry Potter. So, you meant 'try' is used as a verb here?
    – dan
    2 hours ago








  • 2




    Yes, it is. He had two [individuals] attempt to pay him with great gold coins. The "try" is a verb, and the phrasing "try and" is a common substitute for the more standard "try to".
    – Gary Botnovcan
    2 hours ago










  • Dan, the non-standard use of 'try and pay' makes this sentence extremely difficult to understand. They are not two different actions. As soon as that is replaced by 'try to pay', i.e. the one action it really was, the meaning is understandable. May I suggest Harry Potter books are an awful resource to use if you want to improve your English. They contain numerous examples of intentionally bad grammar used a form of humour.
    – Ross Murray
    52 mins ago










  • @RossMurray I was on the halfway of it, so I think I should finish it anyway.
    – dan
    25 mins ago
















Probably "You're not the first one ... I had two (people) try ..." Where is this passage from? Weasley makes me think of Harry Potter.
– ColleenV
2 hours ago




Probably "You're not the first one ... I had two (people) try ..." Where is this passage from? Weasley makes me think of Harry Potter.
– ColleenV
2 hours ago












@ColleenV: Yes, from Harry Potter. So, you meant 'try' is used as a verb here?
– dan
2 hours ago






@ColleenV: Yes, from Harry Potter. So, you meant 'try' is used as a verb here?
– dan
2 hours ago






2




2




Yes, it is. He had two [individuals] attempt to pay him with great gold coins. The "try" is a verb, and the phrasing "try and" is a common substitute for the more standard "try to".
– Gary Botnovcan
2 hours ago




Yes, it is. He had two [individuals] attempt to pay him with great gold coins. The "try" is a verb, and the phrasing "try and" is a common substitute for the more standard "try to".
– Gary Botnovcan
2 hours ago












Dan, the non-standard use of 'try and pay' makes this sentence extremely difficult to understand. They are not two different actions. As soon as that is replaced by 'try to pay', i.e. the one action it really was, the meaning is understandable. May I suggest Harry Potter books are an awful resource to use if you want to improve your English. They contain numerous examples of intentionally bad grammar used a form of humour.
– Ross Murray
52 mins ago




Dan, the non-standard use of 'try and pay' makes this sentence extremely difficult to understand. They are not two different actions. As soon as that is replaced by 'try to pay', i.e. the one action it really was, the meaning is understandable. May I suggest Harry Potter books are an awful resource to use if you want to improve your English. They contain numerous examples of intentionally bad grammar used a form of humour.
– Ross Murray
52 mins ago












@RossMurray I was on the halfway of it, so I think I should finish it anyway.
– dan
25 mins ago




@RossMurray I was on the halfway of it, so I think I should finish it anyway.
– dan
25 mins ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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up vote
4
down vote













With context being somewhat limited, it seems he is saying that he had (knew/met) two people who tried and paid him "with great gold coins the size of hubcaps ten minutes ago".



The HAVE + NOUN PHRASE (NP) + VERB construction means experience NP doing what the verb describes. For example:




I have had many people come up to me and ask me for money.




Another similar construction is HAVE + NP + VERB (past participle)




I had my car scuffed.




It should be noted here that HAVE constructions can also be used in causative sentences.




I will have my guy go over there.



I had my hair cut.







share|improve this answer























  • Is it "have + NP + do" the same as "have + NP + to do"? Is it also correct to say: "I have had many people to come up to me and ask me for money."?
    – dan
    2 hours ago










  • @dan You should use the bare infinitive, that is, an infinitive without "to". No, that sentence is incorrect.
    – Eddie Kal
    2 hours ago












  • But I found these examples in Collins dictionary: He had plenty of work to do. I have some important calls to make.
    – dan
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    @dan Those are not the same construction. He had plenty of work to do. implies "The plenty of work was for him to do." "He needed to worry about that work." I had two guys pay me. means "Two guys paid me."
    – Eddie Kal
    2 hours ago











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active

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up vote
4
down vote













With context being somewhat limited, it seems he is saying that he had (knew/met) two people who tried and paid him "with great gold coins the size of hubcaps ten minutes ago".



The HAVE + NOUN PHRASE (NP) + VERB construction means experience NP doing what the verb describes. For example:




I have had many people come up to me and ask me for money.




Another similar construction is HAVE + NP + VERB (past participle)




I had my car scuffed.




It should be noted here that HAVE constructions can also be used in causative sentences.




I will have my guy go over there.



I had my hair cut.







share|improve this answer























  • Is it "have + NP + do" the same as "have + NP + to do"? Is it also correct to say: "I have had many people to come up to me and ask me for money."?
    – dan
    2 hours ago










  • @dan You should use the bare infinitive, that is, an infinitive without "to". No, that sentence is incorrect.
    – Eddie Kal
    2 hours ago












  • But I found these examples in Collins dictionary: He had plenty of work to do. I have some important calls to make.
    – dan
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    @dan Those are not the same construction. He had plenty of work to do. implies "The plenty of work was for him to do." "He needed to worry about that work." I had two guys pay me. means "Two guys paid me."
    – Eddie Kal
    2 hours ago















up vote
4
down vote













With context being somewhat limited, it seems he is saying that he had (knew/met) two people who tried and paid him "with great gold coins the size of hubcaps ten minutes ago".



The HAVE + NOUN PHRASE (NP) + VERB construction means experience NP doing what the verb describes. For example:




I have had many people come up to me and ask me for money.




Another similar construction is HAVE + NP + VERB (past participle)




I had my car scuffed.




It should be noted here that HAVE constructions can also be used in causative sentences.




I will have my guy go over there.



I had my hair cut.







share|improve this answer























  • Is it "have + NP + do" the same as "have + NP + to do"? Is it also correct to say: "I have had many people to come up to me and ask me for money."?
    – dan
    2 hours ago










  • @dan You should use the bare infinitive, that is, an infinitive without "to". No, that sentence is incorrect.
    – Eddie Kal
    2 hours ago












  • But I found these examples in Collins dictionary: He had plenty of work to do. I have some important calls to make.
    – dan
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    @dan Those are not the same construction. He had plenty of work to do. implies "The plenty of work was for him to do." "He needed to worry about that work." I had two guys pay me. means "Two guys paid me."
    – Eddie Kal
    2 hours ago













up vote
4
down vote










up vote
4
down vote









With context being somewhat limited, it seems he is saying that he had (knew/met) two people who tried and paid him "with great gold coins the size of hubcaps ten minutes ago".



The HAVE + NOUN PHRASE (NP) + VERB construction means experience NP doing what the verb describes. For example:




I have had many people come up to me and ask me for money.




Another similar construction is HAVE + NP + VERB (past participle)




I had my car scuffed.




It should be noted here that HAVE constructions can also be used in causative sentences.




I will have my guy go over there.



I had my hair cut.







share|improve this answer














With context being somewhat limited, it seems he is saying that he had (knew/met) two people who tried and paid him "with great gold coins the size of hubcaps ten minutes ago".



The HAVE + NOUN PHRASE (NP) + VERB construction means experience NP doing what the verb describes. For example:




I have had many people come up to me and ask me for money.




Another similar construction is HAVE + NP + VERB (past participle)




I had my car scuffed.




It should be noted here that HAVE constructions can also be used in causative sentences.




I will have my guy go over there.



I had my hair cut.








share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited 2 hours ago

























answered 2 hours ago









Eddie Kal

4,53041543




4,53041543












  • Is it "have + NP + do" the same as "have + NP + to do"? Is it also correct to say: "I have had many people to come up to me and ask me for money."?
    – dan
    2 hours ago










  • @dan You should use the bare infinitive, that is, an infinitive without "to". No, that sentence is incorrect.
    – Eddie Kal
    2 hours ago












  • But I found these examples in Collins dictionary: He had plenty of work to do. I have some important calls to make.
    – dan
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    @dan Those are not the same construction. He had plenty of work to do. implies "The plenty of work was for him to do." "He needed to worry about that work." I had two guys pay me. means "Two guys paid me."
    – Eddie Kal
    2 hours ago


















  • Is it "have + NP + do" the same as "have + NP + to do"? Is it also correct to say: "I have had many people to come up to me and ask me for money."?
    – dan
    2 hours ago










  • @dan You should use the bare infinitive, that is, an infinitive without "to". No, that sentence is incorrect.
    – Eddie Kal
    2 hours ago












  • But I found these examples in Collins dictionary: He had plenty of work to do. I have some important calls to make.
    – dan
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    @dan Those are not the same construction. He had plenty of work to do. implies "The plenty of work was for him to do." "He needed to worry about that work." I had two guys pay me. means "Two guys paid me."
    – Eddie Kal
    2 hours ago
















Is it "have + NP + do" the same as "have + NP + to do"? Is it also correct to say: "I have had many people to come up to me and ask me for money."?
– dan
2 hours ago




Is it "have + NP + do" the same as "have + NP + to do"? Is it also correct to say: "I have had many people to come up to me and ask me for money."?
– dan
2 hours ago












@dan You should use the bare infinitive, that is, an infinitive without "to". No, that sentence is incorrect.
– Eddie Kal
2 hours ago






@dan You should use the bare infinitive, that is, an infinitive without "to". No, that sentence is incorrect.
– Eddie Kal
2 hours ago














But I found these examples in Collins dictionary: He had plenty of work to do. I have some important calls to make.
– dan
2 hours ago




But I found these examples in Collins dictionary: He had plenty of work to do. I have some important calls to make.
– dan
2 hours ago




1




1




@dan Those are not the same construction. He had plenty of work to do. implies "The plenty of work was for him to do." "He needed to worry about that work." I had two guys pay me. means "Two guys paid me."
– Eddie Kal
2 hours ago




@dan Those are not the same construction. He had plenty of work to do. implies "The plenty of work was for him to do." "He needed to worry about that work." I had two guys pay me. means "Two guys paid me."
– Eddie Kal
2 hours ago


















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