interpretation of “nor…not”
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"We feel discomfort in their absence, but not because their absence results directly in physical discomfort; nor would a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad take offence at their omission."
I'm kind of confusing in reading this sentence since there is 'not' in the nor clause.
Is it safe to change the underlined sentence as 'a taste trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad would take offence at their omission.'?
meaning grammaticality
asked Jul 13 at 21:40
Seulgi So
13
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 40 mins ago
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"We feel discomfort in their absence, but not because their absence results directly in physical discomfort; nor would a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad take offence at their omission."
I'm kind of confusing in reading this sentence since there is 'not' in the nor clause.
Is it safe to change the underlined sentence as 'a taste trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad would take offence at their omission.'?
meaning grammaticality
asked Jul 13 at 21:40
Seulgi So
13
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 40 mins ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
1
If you change a taste not trained to a taste trained, you make the clause mean the opposite.
– Jason Bassford
Jul 14 at 0:02
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
"We feel discomfort in their absence, but not because their absence results directly in physical discomfort; nor would a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad take offence at their omission."
I'm kind of confusing in reading this sentence since there is 'not' in the nor clause.
Is it safe to change the underlined sentence as 'a taste trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad would take offence at their omission.'?
meaning grammaticality
asked Jul 13 at 21:40
Seulgi So
13
"We feel discomfort in their absence, but not because their absence results directly in physical discomfort; nor would a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad take offence at their omission."
I'm kind of confusing in reading this sentence since there is 'not' in the nor clause.
Is it safe to change the underlined sentence as 'a taste trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad would take offence at their omission.'?
meaning grammaticality
meaning grammaticality
asked Jul 13 at 21:40
Seulgi So
13
asked Jul 13 at 21:40
Seulgi So
13
asked Jul 13 at 21:40
Seulgi So
13
asked Jul 13 at 21:40
Seulgi So
13
asked Jul 13 at 21:40
Seulgi So
13
13
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 40 mins ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 40 mins ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
1
If you change a taste not trained to a taste trained, you make the clause mean the opposite.
– Jason Bassford
Jul 14 at 0:02
add a comment |
1
If you change a taste not trained to a taste trained, you make the clause mean the opposite.
– Jason Bassford
Jul 14 at 0:02
1
1
If you change a taste not trained to a taste trained, you make the clause mean the opposite.
– Jason Bassford
Jul 14 at 0:02
If you change a taste not trained to a taste trained, you make the clause mean the opposite.
– Jason Bassford
Jul 14 at 0:02
add a comment |
1 Answer
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"nor would a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad take offence at their omission".
The above can be "translated" as: "and also (in addition), a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad would not take offence at their omission".
Hopefully, it resolves your confusion.
add a comment |
1 Answer
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active
oldest
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
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active
oldest
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up vote
0
down vote
"nor would a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad take offence at their omission".
The above can be "translated" as: "and also (in addition), a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad would not take offence at their omission".
Hopefully, it resolves your confusion.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
"nor would a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad take offence at their omission".
The above can be "translated" as: "and also (in addition), a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad would not take offence at their omission".
Hopefully, it resolves your confusion.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
"nor would a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad take offence at their omission".
The above can be "translated" as: "and also (in addition), a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad would not take offence at their omission".
Hopefully, it resolves your confusion.
"nor would a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad take offence at their omission".
The above can be "translated" as: "and also (in addition), a taste not trained to discriminate between the conventionally good and the conventionally bad would not take offence at their omission".
Hopefully, it resolves your confusion.
answered Jul 13 at 22:21
user253826
add a comment |
add a comment |
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1
If you change a taste not trained to a taste trained, you make the clause mean the opposite.
– Jason Bassford
Jul 14 at 0:02