Pronounciation of rebut












0














According to the Mac OS X's built-in dictionary app, the pronunciation of the word "rebut" is "rəˈbət". It is also the case on this site: https://vocabulary-words.com/rebut/



Shouldn't it be "rɪˈbʌt" instead?










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  • I agree that the first syllable should have /ɪ/, not /ə/. I don’t think this is a case of the archephoneme /ɨ/ (as in roses or enough). The second syllable is just a matter of transcription, though. /ʌ/ never appears in unstressed syllables and /ə/ never in stressed ones, so some (American) systems consider /ʌ/ the stressed variant of /ə/ and write them both as /ə/.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    49 mins ago










  • The built in dictionary you’re referencing is probably the New Oxford American Dictionary.
    – Laurel
    32 mins ago
















0














According to the Mac OS X's built-in dictionary app, the pronunciation of the word "rebut" is "rəˈbət". It is also the case on this site: https://vocabulary-words.com/rebut/



Shouldn't it be "rɪˈbʌt" instead?










share|improve this question







New contributor




bigfoot is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.




















  • I agree that the first syllable should have /ɪ/, not /ə/. I don’t think this is a case of the archephoneme /ɨ/ (as in roses or enough). The second syllable is just a matter of transcription, though. /ʌ/ never appears in unstressed syllables and /ə/ never in stressed ones, so some (American) systems consider /ʌ/ the stressed variant of /ə/ and write them both as /ə/.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    49 mins ago










  • The built in dictionary you’re referencing is probably the New Oxford American Dictionary.
    – Laurel
    32 mins ago














0












0








0


1





According to the Mac OS X's built-in dictionary app, the pronunciation of the word "rebut" is "rəˈbət". It is also the case on this site: https://vocabulary-words.com/rebut/



Shouldn't it be "rɪˈbʌt" instead?










share|improve this question







New contributor




bigfoot is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











According to the Mac OS X's built-in dictionary app, the pronunciation of the word "rebut" is "rəˈbət". It is also the case on this site: https://vocabulary-words.com/rebut/



Shouldn't it be "rɪˈbʌt" instead?







pronunciation






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  • I agree that the first syllable should have /ɪ/, not /ə/. I don’t think this is a case of the archephoneme /ɨ/ (as in roses or enough). The second syllable is just a matter of transcription, though. /ʌ/ never appears in unstressed syllables and /ə/ never in stressed ones, so some (American) systems consider /ʌ/ the stressed variant of /ə/ and write them both as /ə/.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    49 mins ago










  • The built in dictionary you’re referencing is probably the New Oxford American Dictionary.
    – Laurel
    32 mins ago


















  • I agree that the first syllable should have /ɪ/, not /ə/. I don’t think this is a case of the archephoneme /ɨ/ (as in roses or enough). The second syllable is just a matter of transcription, though. /ʌ/ never appears in unstressed syllables and /ə/ never in stressed ones, so some (American) systems consider /ʌ/ the stressed variant of /ə/ and write them both as /ə/.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    49 mins ago










  • The built in dictionary you’re referencing is probably the New Oxford American Dictionary.
    – Laurel
    32 mins ago
















I agree that the first syllable should have /ɪ/, not /ə/. I don’t think this is a case of the archephoneme /ɨ/ (as in roses or enough). The second syllable is just a matter of transcription, though. /ʌ/ never appears in unstressed syllables and /ə/ never in stressed ones, so some (American) systems consider /ʌ/ the stressed variant of /ə/ and write them both as /ə/.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
49 mins ago




I agree that the first syllable should have /ɪ/, not /ə/. I don’t think this is a case of the archephoneme /ɨ/ (as in roses or enough). The second syllable is just a matter of transcription, though. /ʌ/ never appears in unstressed syllables and /ə/ never in stressed ones, so some (American) systems consider /ʌ/ the stressed variant of /ə/ and write them both as /ə/.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
49 mins ago












The built in dictionary you’re referencing is probably the New Oxford American Dictionary.
– Laurel
32 mins ago




The built in dictionary you’re referencing is probably the New Oxford American Dictionary.
– Laurel
32 mins ago










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Many English speakers don't have a clear distinction between /ə/ and /ɪ/ in unstressed syllables. This is called the "weak vowel merger"; in transcription, the merged vowel is generally written as /ə/. Most transcriptions of American English include the weak vowel merger.



(However, some speakers who do have this merger use somewhat different qualities on average for word-final and non-word-final /ə/, and the word-final quality is retained even when a consonant like /z/ or /d/ is added by inflection. For speakers with this kind of "Rosa's" vs. "Roses" distinction, non-word-final schwa tends to be phonetically closer/higher than word-final schwa.)



Similarly, many English speakers don't have any distinction at all between /ə/ and /ʌ/ in primary-stressed syllables. (Some speakers do report distinguishing stressed /ə/ and /ʌ/, e.g. in just "only" /ˈdʒəst/ vs. dust /ˈdʌst/.) If we assume that non-primary-stressed syllables containing /ʌ/ always have some kind of secondary or minor stress, then /ə/ and /ʌ/ are in complementary distribution for these speakers as long as we specify the stress pattern of a word.



This can be analyzed in different ways. One common way is to say that the phoneme /ə/ is phonologically restricted to unstressed syllables. But we could also say that /ə/ and /ʌ/ are not in fact distinct phonemes for these speakers.



Even if we don't actually adopt that viewpoint as a matter of technical analysis, the complementary distribution of /ə/ and /ʌ/ in the accents of these speakers means that we can unambiguously transcribe the phoneme /ʌ/ with the symbol "ə". Dictionary authors might choose to do this to reduce the number of unfamiliar symbols in their transcription scheme. I think that the symbol "ə" is more widely recognized than the symbol "ʌ", and most dictionaries are designed for a non-expert audience.






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    Many English speakers don't have a clear distinction between /ə/ and /ɪ/ in unstressed syllables. This is called the "weak vowel merger"; in transcription, the merged vowel is generally written as /ə/. Most transcriptions of American English include the weak vowel merger.



    (However, some speakers who do have this merger use somewhat different qualities on average for word-final and non-word-final /ə/, and the word-final quality is retained even when a consonant like /z/ or /d/ is added by inflection. For speakers with this kind of "Rosa's" vs. "Roses" distinction, non-word-final schwa tends to be phonetically closer/higher than word-final schwa.)



    Similarly, many English speakers don't have any distinction at all between /ə/ and /ʌ/ in primary-stressed syllables. (Some speakers do report distinguishing stressed /ə/ and /ʌ/, e.g. in just "only" /ˈdʒəst/ vs. dust /ˈdʌst/.) If we assume that non-primary-stressed syllables containing /ʌ/ always have some kind of secondary or minor stress, then /ə/ and /ʌ/ are in complementary distribution for these speakers as long as we specify the stress pattern of a word.



    This can be analyzed in different ways. One common way is to say that the phoneme /ə/ is phonologically restricted to unstressed syllables. But we could also say that /ə/ and /ʌ/ are not in fact distinct phonemes for these speakers.



    Even if we don't actually adopt that viewpoint as a matter of technical analysis, the complementary distribution of /ə/ and /ʌ/ in the accents of these speakers means that we can unambiguously transcribe the phoneme /ʌ/ with the symbol "ə". Dictionary authors might choose to do this to reduce the number of unfamiliar symbols in their transcription scheme. I think that the symbol "ə" is more widely recognized than the symbol "ʌ", and most dictionaries are designed for a non-expert audience.






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      Many English speakers don't have a clear distinction between /ə/ and /ɪ/ in unstressed syllables. This is called the "weak vowel merger"; in transcription, the merged vowel is generally written as /ə/. Most transcriptions of American English include the weak vowel merger.



      (However, some speakers who do have this merger use somewhat different qualities on average for word-final and non-word-final /ə/, and the word-final quality is retained even when a consonant like /z/ or /d/ is added by inflection. For speakers with this kind of "Rosa's" vs. "Roses" distinction, non-word-final schwa tends to be phonetically closer/higher than word-final schwa.)



      Similarly, many English speakers don't have any distinction at all between /ə/ and /ʌ/ in primary-stressed syllables. (Some speakers do report distinguishing stressed /ə/ and /ʌ/, e.g. in just "only" /ˈdʒəst/ vs. dust /ˈdʌst/.) If we assume that non-primary-stressed syllables containing /ʌ/ always have some kind of secondary or minor stress, then /ə/ and /ʌ/ are in complementary distribution for these speakers as long as we specify the stress pattern of a word.



      This can be analyzed in different ways. One common way is to say that the phoneme /ə/ is phonologically restricted to unstressed syllables. But we could also say that /ə/ and /ʌ/ are not in fact distinct phonemes for these speakers.



      Even if we don't actually adopt that viewpoint as a matter of technical analysis, the complementary distribution of /ə/ and /ʌ/ in the accents of these speakers means that we can unambiguously transcribe the phoneme /ʌ/ with the symbol "ə". Dictionary authors might choose to do this to reduce the number of unfamiliar symbols in their transcription scheme. I think that the symbol "ə" is more widely recognized than the symbol "ʌ", and most dictionaries are designed for a non-expert audience.






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        Many English speakers don't have a clear distinction between /ə/ and /ɪ/ in unstressed syllables. This is called the "weak vowel merger"; in transcription, the merged vowel is generally written as /ə/. Most transcriptions of American English include the weak vowel merger.



        (However, some speakers who do have this merger use somewhat different qualities on average for word-final and non-word-final /ə/, and the word-final quality is retained even when a consonant like /z/ or /d/ is added by inflection. For speakers with this kind of "Rosa's" vs. "Roses" distinction, non-word-final schwa tends to be phonetically closer/higher than word-final schwa.)



        Similarly, many English speakers don't have any distinction at all between /ə/ and /ʌ/ in primary-stressed syllables. (Some speakers do report distinguishing stressed /ə/ and /ʌ/, e.g. in just "only" /ˈdʒəst/ vs. dust /ˈdʌst/.) If we assume that non-primary-stressed syllables containing /ʌ/ always have some kind of secondary or minor stress, then /ə/ and /ʌ/ are in complementary distribution for these speakers as long as we specify the stress pattern of a word.



        This can be analyzed in different ways. One common way is to say that the phoneme /ə/ is phonologically restricted to unstressed syllables. But we could also say that /ə/ and /ʌ/ are not in fact distinct phonemes for these speakers.



        Even if we don't actually adopt that viewpoint as a matter of technical analysis, the complementary distribution of /ə/ and /ʌ/ in the accents of these speakers means that we can unambiguously transcribe the phoneme /ʌ/ with the symbol "ə". Dictionary authors might choose to do this to reduce the number of unfamiliar symbols in their transcription scheme. I think that the symbol "ə" is more widely recognized than the symbol "ʌ", and most dictionaries are designed for a non-expert audience.






        share|improve this answer














        Many English speakers don't have a clear distinction between /ə/ and /ɪ/ in unstressed syllables. This is called the "weak vowel merger"; in transcription, the merged vowel is generally written as /ə/. Most transcriptions of American English include the weak vowel merger.



        (However, some speakers who do have this merger use somewhat different qualities on average for word-final and non-word-final /ə/, and the word-final quality is retained even when a consonant like /z/ or /d/ is added by inflection. For speakers with this kind of "Rosa's" vs. "Roses" distinction, non-word-final schwa tends to be phonetically closer/higher than word-final schwa.)



        Similarly, many English speakers don't have any distinction at all between /ə/ and /ʌ/ in primary-stressed syllables. (Some speakers do report distinguishing stressed /ə/ and /ʌ/, e.g. in just "only" /ˈdʒəst/ vs. dust /ˈdʌst/.) If we assume that non-primary-stressed syllables containing /ʌ/ always have some kind of secondary or minor stress, then /ə/ and /ʌ/ are in complementary distribution for these speakers as long as we specify the stress pattern of a word.



        This can be analyzed in different ways. One common way is to say that the phoneme /ə/ is phonologically restricted to unstressed syllables. But we could also say that /ə/ and /ʌ/ are not in fact distinct phonemes for these speakers.



        Even if we don't actually adopt that viewpoint as a matter of technical analysis, the complementary distribution of /ə/ and /ʌ/ in the accents of these speakers means that we can unambiguously transcribe the phoneme /ʌ/ with the symbol "ə". Dictionary authors might choose to do this to reduce the number of unfamiliar symbols in their transcription scheme. I think that the symbol "ə" is more widely recognized than the symbol "ʌ", and most dictionaries are designed for a non-expert audience.







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