Qfyilyi

I am still pondering over why Jesus wept in John 11:35 when he knew he would bring Lazarus back to life.

Was he not sure he could raise Lazarus back to life? But he earlier told his disciples that he was going to wake him up. So why did he weep when he knew he would bring the dead back to life?

Good question! The scriptures record Jesus weeping on three occasions (although I'm certain that He wept far more than that, but it's interesting that the Holy Spirit included the fact that He wept at the times that He did, which, to me, seems to give a broader sweep or 'deeper' meaning behind the context, etc.). He wept in John here, and He wept over Jerusalem in Luke 19:41, and the Holy Spirit records that He wept at Gethsemane in Hebrews 5:7. Obviously this is indicative of the immense sorrows, all acquainted with grief (as Isaiah 53 informs us).

When one examines the context of what is going on in John 11, it is clear that when Jesus arrives, Lazarus' sisters point to the location of where Lazarus is buried, and it's interesting to point out, as well, that they make an admission that if Jesus Christ had of been there much sooner, then Lazarus would still be alive, and after He saw all of these people weeping over this incident, in verse 33 it says that Christ "groaned in the spirit" and that He "was troubled." Understandably. They believed in Christ; they had put their faith in Him; they were believers; they had seen Him perform many miracles, and they knew that "if only Jesus had of been here, Lazarus would be alive right now!" This scene is dramatically tragic when you envision what was taking place, etc., and the fact that Christ, Himself, groaned and felt troubled is perhaps an understatement!

So, why was He weeping? Perhaps there's a far greater meaning here, and I believe there is! I would posit that Christ is weeping here, not only for Lazarus (and of course, He was seeing others weeping, as well), but that Christ was weeping for the entire position of Humanity, in general. Satan had seized upon that of which was intended for Man, and Christ knows that "death" was never a part of the "ultimate plan," but because sin had entered into the picture, this obviously resulted in death, and the universal depravity of Humanity.

Christ is "groaning" in his spirit; He's "troubled" because not only is his friend, Lazarus, dead in the tomb, but Christ, as a man, recognizes, understands, and even identifies with "the sting of death." He also realizes that the Cross awaits Him (as God) and that by the shedding of His Innocent Blood, He will be the means that restores the depravity of Humanity/etc. back to its original state. I think that Christ is weeping here because He recognizes and even feels deeply (flesh and spirit) that Humanity, itself, is fully fallen, and that Satan is "the god of this age".

Could it be that Christ is weeping for all of Humanity here, and not only for Lazarus, individually? As fully God, Christ knows what is to come in the ages ahead: centuries of more wars, death, destruction, as Satan goes about as a lion seeking to devour All. Christ knows what is ahead: from pestilence, famine, The Holocaust, and every other horrible tragedy that will befall mankind, as death reigns for the time-being. He knows what is ahead...

So, "Jesus wept."

One of the shortest sentences, but one of the most intense, of which could have far greater underlying meaning that merely the fact that Lazarus was dead in the tomb. Death is the ultimate looter, the ultimate robber, the ultimate thief, of which we're all subjected to; at least, that is, our mortal bodies. When He comes again, Mankind will be restored and Death will "die," ultimately liberated from Death altogether.

So, "Jesus wept."

This seems to have far greater meaning than just this incident here with Lazarus.