Eigenvalues and Eigenvectors of Sum of Symmetric Matrix











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Question:



Let A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}



Find all eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the martrix:



$$sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n = A^{100} +A^{99} +...+A^2+A$$



I know that the eigenvectors of A are begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} and begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix}
But I do not see any sort of correlation with the sum term and A's eigenvectors.










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    Try evaluating $(sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n) begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}$ and do the same with the other eigenvector. What happens?
    – Giuseppe Negro
    5 hours ago

















up vote
4
down vote

favorite












Question:



Let A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}



Find all eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the martrix:



$$sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n = A^{100} +A^{99} +...+A^2+A$$



I know that the eigenvectors of A are begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} and begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix}
But I do not see any sort of correlation with the sum term and A's eigenvectors.










share|cite|improve this question







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mhall14 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • 2




    Try evaluating $(sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n) begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}$ and do the same with the other eigenvector. What happens?
    – Giuseppe Negro
    5 hours ago















up vote
4
down vote

favorite









up vote
4
down vote

favorite











Question:



Let A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}



Find all eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the martrix:



$$sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n = A^{100} +A^{99} +...+A^2+A$$



I know that the eigenvectors of A are begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} and begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix}
But I do not see any sort of correlation with the sum term and A's eigenvectors.










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




mhall14 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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Question:



Let A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}



Find all eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the martrix:



$$sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n = A^{100} +A^{99} +...+A^2+A$$



I know that the eigenvectors of A are begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} and begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix}
But I do not see any sort of correlation with the sum term and A's eigenvectors.







linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors symmetric-matrices






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  • 2




    Try evaluating $(sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n) begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}$ and do the same with the other eigenvector. What happens?
    – Giuseppe Negro
    5 hours ago
















  • 2




    Try evaluating $(sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n) begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}$ and do the same with the other eigenvector. What happens?
    – Giuseppe Negro
    5 hours ago










2




2




Try evaluating $(sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n) begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}$ and do the same with the other eigenvector. What happens?
– Giuseppe Negro
5 hours ago






Try evaluating $(sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n) begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}$ and do the same with the other eigenvector. What happens?
– Giuseppe Negro
5 hours ago












6 Answers
6






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2
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Hint: If $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}$$then we have $$A^2 = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 2 & 2 \ 2 & 2 \ end{bmatrix}\A^3=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 2&2 \ 2&2 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}\A^4=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}8&8 \ 8&8 \ end{bmatrix}\.\.\.\.$$and you can prove by induction that $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1}\ end{bmatrix}$$can you finish now?






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    Hint :



    Recall the Cayley-Hamilton Theorem (by Wikipedia) :




    For a general n×n invertible matrix $A$, i.e., one with nonzero determinant, $A^{−1}$ can thus be written as an $(n − 1)$-th order polynomial expression in $A$: As indicated, the Cayley–Hamilton theorem amounts to the identity :
    $$p(A) = A^n + c_{n-1}A^{n-1} + dots + cA + (-1)^ndet(A)I_n = O$$
    The coefficients ci are given by the elementary symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues of $A$. Using Newton identities, the elementary symmetric polynomials can in turn be expressed in terms of power sum symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues:
    $$s_k = sum_{i=1}^n lambda_i^k = text{tr}(A^k)$$







    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      It is easy to prove that for $kin Bbb{N},$ $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ end{bmatrix}.$$ The sum is
      $$Sigma=begin{bmatrix} 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ end{bmatrix},$$ from where the eigenvalues $0$ and $(2^{101}-2).$



      Each matrix $A^k, k=1,dots,100$ has eigenvalues $0$ and $2^k,$ the corresponding eigenvectors are those of $A:$ $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T.$

      Thus $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T$ are eigenvectors of $Sigma.$






      share|cite|improve this answer






























        up vote
        0
        down vote













        Since you have 2 linear independent eigenvectors, $A$ is diagonalizable. You may find useful to replace $A$ in your polynomial expression by its diagonalization because this will simplify the operations you need to do.






        share|cite|improve this answer




























          up vote
          0
          down vote













          You can explicitly compute $sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i$. First diagonalize $A$, namely rewrite $A$ as $A=PDP^{-1}$.



          Now
          begin{align}
          sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i&=sum_{i=1}^{100}PD^iP^{-1}\&=Pleft(sum_{i=1}^{100} D^iright)P^{-1}
          end{align}



          Notice that
          $$(D-I)left(sum_{i=1}^{100}D^iright)=D^{101}-I.$$
          SInce $D-I$ is invertible (you can check it)
          $$sum_{i=1}^{100}D^i=(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I).$$
          Therefore
          $$sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i=P(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I)P^{-1}.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer




























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            By linearity, given any polynomial $p$ and matrix $A$, the eigenvectors of $p(A)$ are the same as the eigenvectors of $A$, and the associated eigenvalues are $p(lambda)$; see this question.



            For instance, in this case, if $Av=lambda v$, then $A^nv=lambda^nv$, and $(sum_{n=1}^{100}A^n)v=sum_{n=1}^{100}(A^nv )=sum_{n=1}^{100}(lambda^nv)=(sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n)v$. Thus, $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n$. $A$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$. $p(2)$ is a geometric series, so it is $2^{101}-1$. $p(0)$ is just zero. So $p(A)$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2^{101}-1$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$






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              6 Answers
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              Hint: If $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}$$then we have $$A^2 = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 2 & 2 \ 2 & 2 \ end{bmatrix}\A^3=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 2&2 \ 2&2 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}\A^4=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}8&8 \ 8&8 \ end{bmatrix}\.\.\.\.$$and you can prove by induction that $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1}\ end{bmatrix}$$can you finish now?






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                Hint: If $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}$$then we have $$A^2 = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 2 & 2 \ 2 & 2 \ end{bmatrix}\A^3=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 2&2 \ 2&2 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}\A^4=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}8&8 \ 8&8 \ end{bmatrix}\.\.\.\.$$and you can prove by induction that $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1}\ end{bmatrix}$$can you finish now?






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                  up vote
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                  Hint: If $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}$$then we have $$A^2 = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 2 & 2 \ 2 & 2 \ end{bmatrix}\A^3=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 2&2 \ 2&2 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}\A^4=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}8&8 \ 8&8 \ end{bmatrix}\.\.\.\.$$and you can prove by induction that $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1}\ end{bmatrix}$$can you finish now?






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Hint: If $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}$$then we have $$A^2 = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 2 & 2 \ 2 & 2 \ end{bmatrix}\A^3=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 2&2 \ 2&2 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}\A^4=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}8&8 \ 8&8 \ end{bmatrix}\.\.\.\.$$and you can prove by induction that $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1}\ end{bmatrix}$$can you finish now?







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                  answered 5 hours ago









                  Mostafa Ayaz

                  13.4k3836




                  13.4k3836






















                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      Hint :



                      Recall the Cayley-Hamilton Theorem (by Wikipedia) :




                      For a general n×n invertible matrix $A$, i.e., one with nonzero determinant, $A^{−1}$ can thus be written as an $(n − 1)$-th order polynomial expression in $A$: As indicated, the Cayley–Hamilton theorem amounts to the identity :
                      $$p(A) = A^n + c_{n-1}A^{n-1} + dots + cA + (-1)^ndet(A)I_n = O$$
                      The coefficients ci are given by the elementary symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues of $A$. Using Newton identities, the elementary symmetric polynomials can in turn be expressed in terms of power sum symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues:
                      $$s_k = sum_{i=1}^n lambda_i^k = text{tr}(A^k)$$







                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        Hint :



                        Recall the Cayley-Hamilton Theorem (by Wikipedia) :




                        For a general n×n invertible matrix $A$, i.e., one with nonzero determinant, $A^{−1}$ can thus be written as an $(n − 1)$-th order polynomial expression in $A$: As indicated, the Cayley–Hamilton theorem amounts to the identity :
                        $$p(A) = A^n + c_{n-1}A^{n-1} + dots + cA + (-1)^ndet(A)I_n = O$$
                        The coefficients ci are given by the elementary symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues of $A$. Using Newton identities, the elementary symmetric polynomials can in turn be expressed in terms of power sum symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues:
                        $$s_k = sum_{i=1}^n lambda_i^k = text{tr}(A^k)$$







                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote









                          Hint :



                          Recall the Cayley-Hamilton Theorem (by Wikipedia) :




                          For a general n×n invertible matrix $A$, i.e., one with nonzero determinant, $A^{−1}$ can thus be written as an $(n − 1)$-th order polynomial expression in $A$: As indicated, the Cayley–Hamilton theorem amounts to the identity :
                          $$p(A) = A^n + c_{n-1}A^{n-1} + dots + cA + (-1)^ndet(A)I_n = O$$
                          The coefficients ci are given by the elementary symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues of $A$. Using Newton identities, the elementary symmetric polynomials can in turn be expressed in terms of power sum symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues:
                          $$s_k = sum_{i=1}^n lambda_i^k = text{tr}(A^k)$$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          Hint :



                          Recall the Cayley-Hamilton Theorem (by Wikipedia) :




                          For a general n×n invertible matrix $A$, i.e., one with nonzero determinant, $A^{−1}$ can thus be written as an $(n − 1)$-th order polynomial expression in $A$: As indicated, the Cayley–Hamilton theorem amounts to the identity :
                          $$p(A) = A^n + c_{n-1}A^{n-1} + dots + cA + (-1)^ndet(A)I_n = O$$
                          The coefficients ci are given by the elementary symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues of $A$. Using Newton identities, the elementary symmetric polynomials can in turn be expressed in terms of power sum symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues:
                          $$s_k = sum_{i=1}^n lambda_i^k = text{tr}(A^k)$$








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                          answered 5 hours ago









                          Rebellos

                          13.3k21142




                          13.3k21142






















                              up vote
                              1
                              down vote













                              It is easy to prove that for $kin Bbb{N},$ $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ end{bmatrix}.$$ The sum is
                              $$Sigma=begin{bmatrix} 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ end{bmatrix},$$ from where the eigenvalues $0$ and $(2^{101}-2).$



                              Each matrix $A^k, k=1,dots,100$ has eigenvalues $0$ and $2^k,$ the corresponding eigenvectors are those of $A:$ $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T.$

                              Thus $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T$ are eigenvectors of $Sigma.$






                              share|cite|improve this answer



























                                up vote
                                1
                                down vote













                                It is easy to prove that for $kin Bbb{N},$ $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ end{bmatrix}.$$ The sum is
                                $$Sigma=begin{bmatrix} 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ end{bmatrix},$$ from where the eigenvalues $0$ and $(2^{101}-2).$



                                Each matrix $A^k, k=1,dots,100$ has eigenvalues $0$ and $2^k,$ the corresponding eigenvectors are those of $A:$ $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T.$

                                Thus $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T$ are eigenvectors of $Sigma.$






                                share|cite|improve this answer

























                                  up vote
                                  1
                                  down vote










                                  up vote
                                  1
                                  down vote









                                  It is easy to prove that for $kin Bbb{N},$ $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ end{bmatrix}.$$ The sum is
                                  $$Sigma=begin{bmatrix} 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ end{bmatrix},$$ from where the eigenvalues $0$ and $(2^{101}-2).$



                                  Each matrix $A^k, k=1,dots,100$ has eigenvalues $0$ and $2^k,$ the corresponding eigenvectors are those of $A:$ $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T.$

                                  Thus $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T$ are eigenvectors of $Sigma.$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer














                                  It is easy to prove that for $kin Bbb{N},$ $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ end{bmatrix}.$$ The sum is
                                  $$Sigma=begin{bmatrix} 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ end{bmatrix},$$ from where the eigenvalues $0$ and $(2^{101}-2).$



                                  Each matrix $A^k, k=1,dots,100$ has eigenvalues $0$ and $2^k,$ the corresponding eigenvectors are those of $A:$ $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T.$

                                  Thus $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T$ are eigenvectors of $Sigma.$







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                                  share|cite|improve this answer



                                  share|cite|improve this answer








                                  edited 1 hour ago

























                                  answered 4 hours ago









                                  user376343

                                  2,6812820




                                  2,6812820






















                                      up vote
                                      0
                                      down vote













                                      Since you have 2 linear independent eigenvectors, $A$ is diagonalizable. You may find useful to replace $A$ in your polynomial expression by its diagonalization because this will simplify the operations you need to do.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                                        up vote
                                        0
                                        down vote













                                        Since you have 2 linear independent eigenvectors, $A$ is diagonalizable. You may find useful to replace $A$ in your polynomial expression by its diagonalization because this will simplify the operations you need to do.






                                        share|cite|improve this answer























                                          up vote
                                          0
                                          down vote










                                          up vote
                                          0
                                          down vote









                                          Since you have 2 linear independent eigenvectors, $A$ is diagonalizable. You may find useful to replace $A$ in your polynomial expression by its diagonalization because this will simplify the operations you need to do.






                                          share|cite|improve this answer












                                          Since you have 2 linear independent eigenvectors, $A$ is diagonalizable. You may find useful to replace $A$ in your polynomial expression by its diagonalization because this will simplify the operations you need to do.







                                          share|cite|improve this answer












                                          share|cite|improve this answer



                                          share|cite|improve this answer










                                          answered 5 hours ago









                                          Javi

                                          3829




                                          3829






















                                              up vote
                                              0
                                              down vote













                                              You can explicitly compute $sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i$. First diagonalize $A$, namely rewrite $A$ as $A=PDP^{-1}$.



                                              Now
                                              begin{align}
                                              sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i&=sum_{i=1}^{100}PD^iP^{-1}\&=Pleft(sum_{i=1}^{100} D^iright)P^{-1}
                                              end{align}



                                              Notice that
                                              $$(D-I)left(sum_{i=1}^{100}D^iright)=D^{101}-I.$$
                                              SInce $D-I$ is invertible (you can check it)
                                              $$sum_{i=1}^{100}D^i=(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I).$$
                                              Therefore
                                              $$sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i=P(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I)P^{-1}.$$






                                              share|cite|improve this answer

























                                                up vote
                                                0
                                                down vote













                                                You can explicitly compute $sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i$. First diagonalize $A$, namely rewrite $A$ as $A=PDP^{-1}$.



                                                Now
                                                begin{align}
                                                sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i&=sum_{i=1}^{100}PD^iP^{-1}\&=Pleft(sum_{i=1}^{100} D^iright)P^{-1}
                                                end{align}



                                                Notice that
                                                $$(D-I)left(sum_{i=1}^{100}D^iright)=D^{101}-I.$$
                                                SInce $D-I$ is invertible (you can check it)
                                                $$sum_{i=1}^{100}D^i=(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I).$$
                                                Therefore
                                                $$sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i=P(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I)P^{-1}.$$






                                                share|cite|improve this answer























                                                  up vote
                                                  0
                                                  down vote










                                                  up vote
                                                  0
                                                  down vote









                                                  You can explicitly compute $sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i$. First diagonalize $A$, namely rewrite $A$ as $A=PDP^{-1}$.



                                                  Now
                                                  begin{align}
                                                  sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i&=sum_{i=1}^{100}PD^iP^{-1}\&=Pleft(sum_{i=1}^{100} D^iright)P^{-1}
                                                  end{align}



                                                  Notice that
                                                  $$(D-I)left(sum_{i=1}^{100}D^iright)=D^{101}-I.$$
                                                  SInce $D-I$ is invertible (you can check it)
                                                  $$sum_{i=1}^{100}D^i=(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I).$$
                                                  Therefore
                                                  $$sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i=P(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I)P^{-1}.$$






                                                  share|cite|improve this answer












                                                  You can explicitly compute $sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i$. First diagonalize $A$, namely rewrite $A$ as $A=PDP^{-1}$.



                                                  Now
                                                  begin{align}
                                                  sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i&=sum_{i=1}^{100}PD^iP^{-1}\&=Pleft(sum_{i=1}^{100} D^iright)P^{-1}
                                                  end{align}



                                                  Notice that
                                                  $$(D-I)left(sum_{i=1}^{100}D^iright)=D^{101}-I.$$
                                                  SInce $D-I$ is invertible (you can check it)
                                                  $$sum_{i=1}^{100}D^i=(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I).$$
                                                  Therefore
                                                  $$sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i=P(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I)P^{-1}.$$







                                                  share|cite|improve this answer












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                                                      By linearity, given any polynomial $p$ and matrix $A$, the eigenvectors of $p(A)$ are the same as the eigenvectors of $A$, and the associated eigenvalues are $p(lambda)$; see this question.



                                                      For instance, in this case, if $Av=lambda v$, then $A^nv=lambda^nv$, and $(sum_{n=1}^{100}A^n)v=sum_{n=1}^{100}(A^nv )=sum_{n=1}^{100}(lambda^nv)=(sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n)v$. Thus, $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n$. $A$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$. $p(2)$ is a geometric series, so it is $2^{101}-1$. $p(0)$ is just zero. So $p(A)$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2^{101}-1$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$






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                                                        down vote













                                                        By linearity, given any polynomial $p$ and matrix $A$, the eigenvectors of $p(A)$ are the same as the eigenvectors of $A$, and the associated eigenvalues are $p(lambda)$; see this question.



                                                        For instance, in this case, if $Av=lambda v$, then $A^nv=lambda^nv$, and $(sum_{n=1}^{100}A^n)v=sum_{n=1}^{100}(A^nv )=sum_{n=1}^{100}(lambda^nv)=(sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n)v$. Thus, $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n$. $A$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$. $p(2)$ is a geometric series, so it is $2^{101}-1$. $p(0)$ is just zero. So $p(A)$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2^{101}-1$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$






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                                                          up vote
                                                          0
                                                          down vote










                                                          up vote
                                                          0
                                                          down vote









                                                          By linearity, given any polynomial $p$ and matrix $A$, the eigenvectors of $p(A)$ are the same as the eigenvectors of $A$, and the associated eigenvalues are $p(lambda)$; see this question.



                                                          For instance, in this case, if $Av=lambda v$, then $A^nv=lambda^nv$, and $(sum_{n=1}^{100}A^n)v=sum_{n=1}^{100}(A^nv )=sum_{n=1}^{100}(lambda^nv)=(sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n)v$. Thus, $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n$. $A$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$. $p(2)$ is a geometric series, so it is $2^{101}-1$. $p(0)$ is just zero. So $p(A)$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2^{101}-1$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$






                                                          share|cite|improve this answer












                                                          By linearity, given any polynomial $p$ and matrix $A$, the eigenvectors of $p(A)$ are the same as the eigenvectors of $A$, and the associated eigenvalues are $p(lambda)$; see this question.



                                                          For instance, in this case, if $Av=lambda v$, then $A^nv=lambda^nv$, and $(sum_{n=1}^{100}A^n)v=sum_{n=1}^{100}(A^nv )=sum_{n=1}^{100}(lambda^nv)=(sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n)v$. Thus, $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n$. $A$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$. $p(2)$ is a geometric series, so it is $2^{101}-1$. $p(0)$ is just zero. So $p(A)$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2^{101}-1$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$







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                                                          answered 2 hours ago









                                                          Acccumulation

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