Where am I wrong in this solution to $lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$?
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Q - $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$$
Sol -
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0}frac{tan x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} space 0$$
$$0$$
But the answer is $frac{1}{2}$ by L'Hopital's Rule.
calculus limits proof-verification limits-without-lhopital
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up vote
5
down vote
favorite
Q - $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$$
Sol -
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0}frac{tan x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} space 0$$
$$0$$
But the answer is $frac{1}{2}$ by L'Hopital's Rule.
calculus limits proof-verification limits-without-lhopital
5
$infty -infty = ?$
– Math Lover
14 hours ago
edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
– Raghav
13 hours ago
The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
– KM101
13 hours ago
But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
– Raghav
13 hours ago
4
Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
– David G. Stork
12 hours ago
|
show 3 more comments
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
Q - $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$$
Sol -
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0}frac{tan x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} space 0$$
$$0$$
But the answer is $frac{1}{2}$ by L'Hopital's Rule.
calculus limits proof-verification limits-without-lhopital
Q - $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$$
Sol -
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0}frac{tan x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} space 0$$
$$0$$
But the answer is $frac{1}{2}$ by L'Hopital's Rule.
calculus limits proof-verification limits-without-lhopital
calculus limits proof-verification limits-without-lhopital
edited 2 hours ago
Em.
14.9k72037
14.9k72037
asked 14 hours ago
Raghav
386
386
5
$infty -infty = ?$
– Math Lover
14 hours ago
edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
– Raghav
13 hours ago
The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
– KM101
13 hours ago
But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
– Raghav
13 hours ago
4
Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
– David G. Stork
12 hours ago
|
show 3 more comments
5
$infty -infty = ?$
– Math Lover
14 hours ago
edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
– Raghav
13 hours ago
The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
– KM101
13 hours ago
But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
– Raghav
13 hours ago
4
Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
– David G. Stork
12 hours ago
5
5
$infty -infty = ?$
– Math Lover
14 hours ago
$infty -infty = ?$
– Math Lover
14 hours ago
edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
– Raghav
13 hours ago
edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
– Raghav
13 hours ago
The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
– KM101
13 hours ago
The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
– KM101
13 hours ago
But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
– Raghav
13 hours ago
But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
– Raghav
13 hours ago
4
4
Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
– David G. Stork
12 hours ago
Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
– David G. Stork
12 hours ago
|
show 3 more comments
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
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up vote
8
down vote
accepted
Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...
Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.
Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
– Raghav
13 hours ago
1
You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
– KM101
13 hours ago
Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
– Raghav
13 hours ago
Exactly! (No problem.)
– KM101
13 hours ago
@Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
– Paul Sinclair
4 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
23
down vote
This is just another way of saying what the others told you.
$$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$
The theorem is
IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$
But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.
This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.
begin{align}
frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
&= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
&= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
end{align}
which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.
add a comment |
up vote
9
down vote
I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.
New contributor
2
This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
– MPW
13 hours ago
There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
– Acccumulation
11 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.
To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.
We have
$$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$
$$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$
Therefore expression turns to,
$$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$
Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$
Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
– Akash Roy
2 hours ago
add a comment |
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
8
down vote
accepted
Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...
Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.
Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
– Raghav
13 hours ago
1
You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
– KM101
13 hours ago
Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
– Raghav
13 hours ago
Exactly! (No problem.)
– KM101
13 hours ago
@Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
– Paul Sinclair
4 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
8
down vote
accepted
Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...
Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.
Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
– Raghav
13 hours ago
1
You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
– KM101
13 hours ago
Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
– Raghav
13 hours ago
Exactly! (No problem.)
– KM101
13 hours ago
@Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
– Paul Sinclair
4 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
8
down vote
accepted
up vote
8
down vote
accepted
Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...
Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.
Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...
Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.
answered 13 hours ago
KM101
1,961313
1,961313
Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
– Raghav
13 hours ago
1
You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
– KM101
13 hours ago
Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
– Raghav
13 hours ago
Exactly! (No problem.)
– KM101
13 hours ago
@Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
– Paul Sinclair
4 hours ago
add a comment |
Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
– Raghav
13 hours ago
1
You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
– KM101
13 hours ago
Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
– Raghav
13 hours ago
Exactly! (No problem.)
– KM101
13 hours ago
@Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
– Paul Sinclair
4 hours ago
Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
– Raghav
13 hours ago
Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
– Raghav
13 hours ago
1
1
You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
– KM101
13 hours ago
You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
– KM101
13 hours ago
Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
– Raghav
13 hours ago
Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
– Raghav
13 hours ago
Exactly! (No problem.)
– KM101
13 hours ago
Exactly! (No problem.)
– KM101
13 hours ago
@Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
– Paul Sinclair
4 hours ago
@Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
– Paul Sinclair
4 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
23
down vote
This is just another way of saying what the others told you.
$$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$
The theorem is
IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$
But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.
This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.
begin{align}
frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
&= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
&= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
end{align}
which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.
add a comment |
up vote
23
down vote
This is just another way of saying what the others told you.
$$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$
The theorem is
IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$
But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.
This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.
begin{align}
frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
&= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
&= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
end{align}
which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.
add a comment |
up vote
23
down vote
up vote
23
down vote
This is just another way of saying what the others told you.
$$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$
The theorem is
IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$
But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.
This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.
begin{align}
frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
&= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
&= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
end{align}
which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.
This is just another way of saying what the others told you.
$$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$
The theorem is
IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$
But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.
This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.
begin{align}
frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
&= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
&= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
end{align}
which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.
edited 13 hours ago
answered 13 hours ago
steven gregory
17.4k22156
17.4k22156
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
9
down vote
I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.
New contributor
2
This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
– MPW
13 hours ago
There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
– Acccumulation
11 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
9
down vote
I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.
New contributor
2
This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
– MPW
13 hours ago
There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
– Acccumulation
11 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
9
down vote
up vote
9
down vote
I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.
New contributor
I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.
New contributor
edited 13 hours ago
MPW
29.4k11856
29.4k11856
New contributor
answered 13 hours ago
Reinstein
911
911
New contributor
New contributor
2
This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
– MPW
13 hours ago
There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
– Acccumulation
11 hours ago
add a comment |
2
This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
– MPW
13 hours ago
There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
– Acccumulation
11 hours ago
2
2
This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
– MPW
13 hours ago
This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
– MPW
13 hours ago
There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
– Acccumulation
11 hours ago
There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
– Acccumulation
11 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.
To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.
To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.
To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.
Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.
To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.
edited 2 hours ago
answered 3 hours ago
AmbretteOrrisey
1788
1788
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.
We have
$$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$
$$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$
Therefore expression turns to,
$$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$
Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$
Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
– Akash Roy
2 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.
We have
$$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$
$$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$
Therefore expression turns to,
$$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$
Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$
Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
– Akash Roy
2 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.
We have
$$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$
$$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$
Therefore expression turns to,
$$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$
Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$
Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.
We have
$$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$
$$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$
Therefore expression turns to,
$$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$
Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$
edited 1 hour ago
answered 2 hours ago
Akash Roy
36813
36813
Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
– Akash Roy
2 hours ago
add a comment |
Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
– Akash Roy
2 hours ago
Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
– Akash Roy
2 hours ago
Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
– Akash Roy
2 hours ago
add a comment |
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$infty -infty = ?$
– Math Lover
14 hours ago
edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
– Raghav
13 hours ago
The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
– KM101
13 hours ago
But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
– Raghav
13 hours ago
4
Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
– David G. Stork
12 hours ago