Where am I wrong in this solution to $lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$?











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Q - $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$$



Sol -
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0}frac{tan x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} space 0$$
$$0$$



But the answer is $frac{1}{2}$ by L'Hopital's Rule.










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  • 5




    $infty -infty = ?$
    – Math Lover
    14 hours ago










  • edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
    – Raghav
    13 hours ago












  • The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
    – KM101
    13 hours ago












  • But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
    – Raghav
    13 hours ago






  • 4




    Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
    – David G. Stork
    12 hours ago















up vote
5
down vote

favorite
2












Q - $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$$



Sol -
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0}frac{tan x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} space 0$$
$$0$$



But the answer is $frac{1}{2}$ by L'Hopital's Rule.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 5




    $infty -infty = ?$
    – Math Lover
    14 hours ago










  • edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
    – Raghav
    13 hours ago












  • The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
    – KM101
    13 hours ago












  • But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
    – Raghav
    13 hours ago






  • 4




    Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
    – David G. Stork
    12 hours ago













up vote
5
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
5
down vote

favorite
2






2





Q - $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$$



Sol -
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0}frac{tan x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} space 0$$
$$0$$



But the answer is $frac{1}{2}$ by L'Hopital's Rule.










share|cite|improve this question















Q - $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$$



Sol -
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0}frac{tan x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x}.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad 1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -1.lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}$$



$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -frac{1}{x^2}$$
$$Rightarrow qquad lim_{xto 0} space 0$$
$$0$$



But the answer is $frac{1}{2}$ by L'Hopital's Rule.







calculus limits proof-verification limits-without-lhopital






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edited 2 hours ago









Em.

14.9k72037




14.9k72037










asked 14 hours ago









Raghav

386




386








  • 5




    $infty -infty = ?$
    – Math Lover
    14 hours ago










  • edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
    – Raghav
    13 hours ago












  • The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
    – KM101
    13 hours ago












  • But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
    – Raghav
    13 hours ago






  • 4




    Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
    – David G. Stork
    12 hours ago














  • 5




    $infty -infty = ?$
    – Math Lover
    14 hours ago










  • edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
    – Raghav
    13 hours ago












  • The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
    – KM101
    13 hours ago












  • But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
    – Raghav
    13 hours ago






  • 4




    Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
    – David G. Stork
    12 hours ago








5




5




$infty -infty = ?$
– Math Lover
14 hours ago




$infty -infty = ?$
– Math Lover
14 hours ago












edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
– Raghav
13 hours ago






edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
– Raghav
13 hours ago














The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
– KM101
13 hours ago






The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
– KM101
13 hours ago














But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
– Raghav
13 hours ago




But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
– Raghav
13 hours ago




4




4




Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
– David G. Stork
12 hours ago




Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
– David G. Stork
12 hours ago










5 Answers
5






active

oldest

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up vote
8
down vote



accepted










Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...



Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
    – Raghav
    13 hours ago






  • 1




    You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
    – KM101
    13 hours ago












  • Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
    – Raghav
    13 hours ago










  • Exactly! (No problem.)
    – KM101
    13 hours ago










  • @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
    – Paul Sinclair
    4 hours ago


















up vote
23
down vote













This is just another way of saying what the others told you.



$$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



The theorem is
IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$



But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.



This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.



begin{align}
frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
&= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
&= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
end{align}



which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.






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    up vote
    9
    down vote













    I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer










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    • 2




      This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
      – MPW
      13 hours ago










    • There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
      – Acccumulation
      11 hours ago


















    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.



    To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.






    share|cite|improve this answer






























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.



      We have



      $$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$



      $$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$



      Therefore expression turns to,



      $$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$



      Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$






      share|cite|improve this answer























      • Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
        – Akash Roy
        2 hours ago













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      5 Answers
      5






      active

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      5 Answers
      5






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      up vote
      8
      down vote



      accepted










      Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...



      Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
        – Raghav
        13 hours ago






      • 1




        You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
        – KM101
        13 hours ago












      • Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
        – Raghav
        13 hours ago










      • Exactly! (No problem.)
        – KM101
        13 hours ago










      • @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
        – Paul Sinclair
        4 hours ago















      up vote
      8
      down vote



      accepted










      Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...



      Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
        – Raghav
        13 hours ago






      • 1




        You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
        – KM101
        13 hours ago












      • Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
        – Raghav
        13 hours ago










      • Exactly! (No problem.)
        – KM101
        13 hours ago










      • @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
        – Paul Sinclair
        4 hours ago













      up vote
      8
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      8
      down vote



      accepted






      Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...



      Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.






      share|cite|improve this answer












      Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...



      Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered 13 hours ago









      KM101

      1,961313




      1,961313












      • Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
        – Raghav
        13 hours ago






      • 1




        You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
        – KM101
        13 hours ago












      • Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
        – Raghav
        13 hours ago










      • Exactly! (No problem.)
        – KM101
        13 hours ago










      • @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
        – Paul Sinclair
        4 hours ago


















      • Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
        – Raghav
        13 hours ago






      • 1




        You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
        – KM101
        13 hours ago












      • Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
        – Raghav
        13 hours ago










      • Exactly! (No problem.)
        – KM101
        13 hours ago










      • @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
        – Paul Sinclair
        4 hours ago
















      Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
      – Raghav
      13 hours ago




      Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
      – Raghav
      13 hours ago




      1




      1




      You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
      – KM101
      13 hours ago






      You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
      – KM101
      13 hours ago














      Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
      – Raghav
      13 hours ago




      Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
      – Raghav
      13 hours ago












      Exactly! (No problem.)
      – KM101
      13 hours ago




      Exactly! (No problem.)
      – KM101
      13 hours ago












      @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
      – Paul Sinclair
      4 hours ago




      @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
      – Paul Sinclair
      4 hours ago










      up vote
      23
      down vote













      This is just another way of saying what the others told you.



      $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
      ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



      The theorem is
      IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
      and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
      THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$



      But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.



      This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.



      begin{align}
      frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
      &= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
      &= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
      &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
      &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
      cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
      &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
      cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
      end{align}



      which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer



























        up vote
        23
        down vote













        This is just another way of saying what the others told you.



        $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
        ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



        The theorem is
        IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
        and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
        THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$



        But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.



        This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.



        begin{align}
        frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
        &= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
        &= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
        &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
        &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
        cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
        &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
        cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
        end{align}



        which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer

























          up vote
          23
          down vote










          up vote
          23
          down vote









          This is just another way of saying what the others told you.



          $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
          ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



          The theorem is
          IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
          and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
          THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$



          But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.



          This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.



          begin{align}
          frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
          &= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
          &= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
          &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
          &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
          cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
          &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
          cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
          end{align}



          which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          This is just another way of saying what the others told you.



          $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
          ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



          The theorem is
          IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
          and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
          THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$



          But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.



          This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.



          begin{align}
          frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
          &= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
          &= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
          &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
          &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
          cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
          &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
          cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
          end{align}



          which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 13 hours ago

























          answered 13 hours ago









          steven gregory

          17.4k22156




          17.4k22156






















              up vote
              9
              down vote













              I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer










              New contributor




              Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.














              • 2




                This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
                – MPW
                13 hours ago










              • There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
                – Acccumulation
                11 hours ago















              up vote
              9
              down vote













              I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer










              New contributor




              Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.














              • 2




                This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
                – MPW
                13 hours ago










              • There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
                – Acccumulation
                11 hours ago













              up vote
              9
              down vote










              up vote
              9
              down vote









              I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer










              New contributor




              Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.









              I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.







              share|cite|improve this answer










              New contributor




              Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.









              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited 13 hours ago









              MPW

              29.4k11856




              29.4k11856






              New contributor




              Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.









              answered 13 hours ago









              Reinstein

              911




              911




              New contributor




              Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.





              New contributor





              Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.






              Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.








              • 2




                This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
                – MPW
                13 hours ago










              • There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
                – Acccumulation
                11 hours ago














              • 2




                This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
                – MPW
                13 hours ago










              • There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
                – Acccumulation
                11 hours ago








              2




              2




              This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
              – MPW
              13 hours ago




              This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
              – MPW
              13 hours ago












              There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
              – Acccumulation
              11 hours ago




              There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
              – Acccumulation
              11 hours ago










              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.



              To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.



                To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.



                  To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.



                  To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited 2 hours ago

























                  answered 3 hours ago









                  AmbretteOrrisey

                  1788




                  1788






















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.



                      We have



                      $$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$



                      $$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$



                      Therefore expression turns to,



                      $$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$



                      Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$






                      share|cite|improve this answer























                      • Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
                        – Akash Roy
                        2 hours ago

















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.



                      We have



                      $$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$



                      $$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$



                      Therefore expression turns to,



                      $$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$



                      Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$






                      share|cite|improve this answer























                      • Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
                        – Akash Roy
                        2 hours ago















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote









                      Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.



                      We have



                      $$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$



                      $$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$



                      Therefore expression turns to,



                      $$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$



                      Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$






                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.



                      We have



                      $$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$



                      $$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$



                      Therefore expression turns to,



                      $$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$



                      Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited 1 hour ago

























                      answered 2 hours ago









                      Akash Roy

                      36813




                      36813












                      • Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
                        – Akash Roy
                        2 hours ago




















                      • Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
                        – Akash Roy
                        2 hours ago


















                      Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
                      – Akash Roy
                      2 hours ago






                      Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
                      – Akash Roy
                      2 hours ago




















                       

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