About ''It is nice to see you''











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First of all, I am not good at English but I have to mention this. İt's annoying me. Please excuse my usage of language.



''It is nice to see you.''



What is the subject of this sentence? What is the thing that is nice? Obviously, it is ''to see''. To see you is nice. But according to the sentence above ''it'' is subject of this sentence. But according to the reasoning, to see is the subject, too. In the final analysis, we can say that we have two words that have the same meaning. As long as two things have the same meaning we can use the one instead of the other one. Therefore, if ''it'' is the same thing with ''to see'' then we can say that to see is nice to see you.



Or let me ask you this: Why do you use such a structure? And what do you think about it?










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  • Plus one, definitely. I'm not sure I understand what you're complaining about; nor am I very good at terminology. But I really appreciate the comical aspect of your question. Bravo!
    – Ricky
    Oct 8 at 21:03






  • 4




    This is a part duplicate of What does "it" refer to in "it is raining"?
    – WS2
    Oct 8 at 21:22






  • 1




    You’re misparsing the sentence. The two parts of a copula clause that you’re referring to are the subject and the subject complement (or predicative complement to the subject). In this case, the subject is ‘to see you’ and the complement is ‘nice’. It’s not ‘it’ and ‘to see you’ that are identified as being equal, but ‘to see you’ and ‘nice’. The sentence says that ‘to see you = nice’, not ‘to see you = it’. The it is, as the question WS2 linked to points out, an expletive or ‘dummy’ pronoun that acts as a preliminary subject to avoid a heavy infinitive subject; nothing more.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Oct 8 at 22:54






  • 1




    @JanusBahsJacquet Bruce Forsyth covered all his bases with his iconic catch-phrase: "It's nice to see you, to see you nice".
    – WS2
    Oct 9 at 7:55










  • @Ricky Nothing comical. See the link provided by WS2.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:05















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












First of all, I am not good at English but I have to mention this. İt's annoying me. Please excuse my usage of language.



''It is nice to see you.''



What is the subject of this sentence? What is the thing that is nice? Obviously, it is ''to see''. To see you is nice. But according to the sentence above ''it'' is subject of this sentence. But according to the reasoning, to see is the subject, too. In the final analysis, we can say that we have two words that have the same meaning. As long as two things have the same meaning we can use the one instead of the other one. Therefore, if ''it'' is the same thing with ''to see'' then we can say that to see is nice to see you.



Or let me ask you this: Why do you use such a structure? And what do you think about it?










share|improve this question














bumped to the homepage by Community 21 mins ago


This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.















  • Plus one, definitely. I'm not sure I understand what you're complaining about; nor am I very good at terminology. But I really appreciate the comical aspect of your question. Bravo!
    – Ricky
    Oct 8 at 21:03






  • 4




    This is a part duplicate of What does "it" refer to in "it is raining"?
    – WS2
    Oct 8 at 21:22






  • 1




    You’re misparsing the sentence. The two parts of a copula clause that you’re referring to are the subject and the subject complement (or predicative complement to the subject). In this case, the subject is ‘to see you’ and the complement is ‘nice’. It’s not ‘it’ and ‘to see you’ that are identified as being equal, but ‘to see you’ and ‘nice’. The sentence says that ‘to see you = nice’, not ‘to see you = it’. The it is, as the question WS2 linked to points out, an expletive or ‘dummy’ pronoun that acts as a preliminary subject to avoid a heavy infinitive subject; nothing more.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Oct 8 at 22:54






  • 1




    @JanusBahsJacquet Bruce Forsyth covered all his bases with his iconic catch-phrase: "It's nice to see you, to see you nice".
    – WS2
    Oct 9 at 7:55










  • @Ricky Nothing comical. See the link provided by WS2.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:05













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











First of all, I am not good at English but I have to mention this. İt's annoying me. Please excuse my usage of language.



''It is nice to see you.''



What is the subject of this sentence? What is the thing that is nice? Obviously, it is ''to see''. To see you is nice. But according to the sentence above ''it'' is subject of this sentence. But according to the reasoning, to see is the subject, too. In the final analysis, we can say that we have two words that have the same meaning. As long as two things have the same meaning we can use the one instead of the other one. Therefore, if ''it'' is the same thing with ''to see'' then we can say that to see is nice to see you.



Or let me ask you this: Why do you use such a structure? And what do you think about it?










share|improve this question













First of all, I am not good at English but I have to mention this. İt's annoying me. Please excuse my usage of language.



''It is nice to see you.''



What is the subject of this sentence? What is the thing that is nice? Obviously, it is ''to see''. To see you is nice. But according to the sentence above ''it'' is subject of this sentence. But according to the reasoning, to see is the subject, too. In the final analysis, we can say that we have two words that have the same meaning. As long as two things have the same meaning we can use the one instead of the other one. Therefore, if ''it'' is the same thing with ''to see'' then we can say that to see is nice to see you.



Or let me ask you this: Why do you use such a structure? And what do you think about it?







sentence-structure






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share|improve this question











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share|improve this question










asked Oct 8 at 20:58









Emir Arıcı

163




163





bumped to the homepage by Community 21 mins ago


This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.







bumped to the homepage by Community 21 mins ago


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  • Plus one, definitely. I'm not sure I understand what you're complaining about; nor am I very good at terminology. But I really appreciate the comical aspect of your question. Bravo!
    – Ricky
    Oct 8 at 21:03






  • 4




    This is a part duplicate of What does "it" refer to in "it is raining"?
    – WS2
    Oct 8 at 21:22






  • 1




    You’re misparsing the sentence. The two parts of a copula clause that you’re referring to are the subject and the subject complement (or predicative complement to the subject). In this case, the subject is ‘to see you’ and the complement is ‘nice’. It’s not ‘it’ and ‘to see you’ that are identified as being equal, but ‘to see you’ and ‘nice’. The sentence says that ‘to see you = nice’, not ‘to see you = it’. The it is, as the question WS2 linked to points out, an expletive or ‘dummy’ pronoun that acts as a preliminary subject to avoid a heavy infinitive subject; nothing more.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Oct 8 at 22:54






  • 1




    @JanusBahsJacquet Bruce Forsyth covered all his bases with his iconic catch-phrase: "It's nice to see you, to see you nice".
    – WS2
    Oct 9 at 7:55










  • @Ricky Nothing comical. See the link provided by WS2.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:05


















  • Plus one, definitely. I'm not sure I understand what you're complaining about; nor am I very good at terminology. But I really appreciate the comical aspect of your question. Bravo!
    – Ricky
    Oct 8 at 21:03






  • 4




    This is a part duplicate of What does "it" refer to in "it is raining"?
    – WS2
    Oct 8 at 21:22






  • 1




    You’re misparsing the sentence. The two parts of a copula clause that you’re referring to are the subject and the subject complement (or predicative complement to the subject). In this case, the subject is ‘to see you’ and the complement is ‘nice’. It’s not ‘it’ and ‘to see you’ that are identified as being equal, but ‘to see you’ and ‘nice’. The sentence says that ‘to see you = nice’, not ‘to see you = it’. The it is, as the question WS2 linked to points out, an expletive or ‘dummy’ pronoun that acts as a preliminary subject to avoid a heavy infinitive subject; nothing more.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Oct 8 at 22:54






  • 1




    @JanusBahsJacquet Bruce Forsyth covered all his bases with his iconic catch-phrase: "It's nice to see you, to see you nice".
    – WS2
    Oct 9 at 7:55










  • @Ricky Nothing comical. See the link provided by WS2.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:05
















Plus one, definitely. I'm not sure I understand what you're complaining about; nor am I very good at terminology. But I really appreciate the comical aspect of your question. Bravo!
– Ricky
Oct 8 at 21:03




Plus one, definitely. I'm not sure I understand what you're complaining about; nor am I very good at terminology. But I really appreciate the comical aspect of your question. Bravo!
– Ricky
Oct 8 at 21:03




4




4




This is a part duplicate of What does "it" refer to in "it is raining"?
– WS2
Oct 8 at 21:22




This is a part duplicate of What does "it" refer to in "it is raining"?
– WS2
Oct 8 at 21:22




1




1




You’re misparsing the sentence. The two parts of a copula clause that you’re referring to are the subject and the subject complement (or predicative complement to the subject). In this case, the subject is ‘to see you’ and the complement is ‘nice’. It’s not ‘it’ and ‘to see you’ that are identified as being equal, but ‘to see you’ and ‘nice’. The sentence says that ‘to see you = nice’, not ‘to see you = it’. The it is, as the question WS2 linked to points out, an expletive or ‘dummy’ pronoun that acts as a preliminary subject to avoid a heavy infinitive subject; nothing more.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
Oct 8 at 22:54




You’re misparsing the sentence. The two parts of a copula clause that you’re referring to are the subject and the subject complement (or predicative complement to the subject). In this case, the subject is ‘to see you’ and the complement is ‘nice’. It’s not ‘it’ and ‘to see you’ that are identified as being equal, but ‘to see you’ and ‘nice’. The sentence says that ‘to see you = nice’, not ‘to see you = it’. The it is, as the question WS2 linked to points out, an expletive or ‘dummy’ pronoun that acts as a preliminary subject to avoid a heavy infinitive subject; nothing more.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
Oct 8 at 22:54




1




1




@JanusBahsJacquet Bruce Forsyth covered all his bases with his iconic catch-phrase: "It's nice to see you, to see you nice".
– WS2
Oct 9 at 7:55




@JanusBahsJacquet Bruce Forsyth covered all his bases with his iconic catch-phrase: "It's nice to see you, to see you nice".
– WS2
Oct 9 at 7:55












@Ricky Nothing comical. See the link provided by WS2.
– Kris
Oct 9 at 11:05




@Ricky Nothing comical. See the link provided by WS2.
– Kris
Oct 9 at 11:05










2 Answers
2






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up vote
0
down vote














Why do you use such a structure?




To speak always in infinitives would be awkward!



The it in It is nice to see you is just a pronoun that takes the place of the thing being described, which is the experience to see you. The thing that a pronoun stands for is called its antecedent, and even though ante means "before," sometimes the pronoun is actually used before the antecedent. Sometimes the antecedent is implied instead of stated implicitly, especially when the meaning is commonly understood:




It is raining.




Here the it means "the weather" or "the current state of things outside." (This isn't limited to English -- in French one would say il pleut for "it's raining," where the il is again a pronoun.)



So the it in it is nice to see you is similarly a placeholder for something that will be explained shortly ("to see you"), and using it makes it possible to invert the order of the expression. That puts the emphasis on the description of the experience ("nice") instead of the thing being described. If you hear someone say that phrase, you might notice that they also put some audible emphasis on "nice"... it's natural to say (where boldface indicates emphasis):




It's nice to see you.




but strange to say:




It's nice to see you.







share|improve this answer























  • To speak in infinitives always would not be awkward if that were how English grammar worked. It just happens not to be. But they do it in many languages, like Spanish and Chinese (though they don’t conjugate verbs so it’s more ‘verb’ than ‘infinitive’), and going by the question, also Turkish. In languages where they do, it’s adding the expletive ‘it’ which is awkward, if not downright ungrammatical. So to say that the expletive construction is used because the alternative is awkward isn’t really saying anything. (Also, ‘it rains’ in French is just il pleut.)
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Oct 8 at 22:45










  • @JanusBahsJacquet It did occur to me as I was writing that it (there's that it again) might not be that we avoid it because it would be awkward, bur rather that it would be awkward because we usually avoid it. Even so, I think there's some value in the point that we don't do it because it sounds strange. Also: pardon my French! It (there we go again) has been a while. Corrected.
    – Caleb
    Oct 9 at 2:06










  • The dummy it has been dealt with on these pages earlier.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:03










  • @Kris When it is compared with ''dummy it'', it is seen that there is a different thing here. In the example which is ''It is raining,'', there is no such thing as interchangeable subjects. I know it is an important issue but the thing that I try to mention is a bit different. I discuss that there are two subjects having the same meaning.
    – Emir Arıcı
    Oct 9 at 18:10




















up vote
-1
down vote













This is a tricky bit of grammar most native speakers do not think about. Using the "it" first creates a void of meaning in the grammatical subject of the sentence. This causes focus to slip to the predicate for meaning. In your example, the first words that have meaning are "is nice". That is the initial impact of the sentence, its main emphasis.



Before we even know what the specific situation is, we know that "it is nice". This is an ideal way of phrasing things if you want to convey an emotional state or response quickly and clearly to somebody, and the context is either heavily implied or less important than conveying your emotions.



You could rephrase this sentence as




To see you is nice.




Or maybe




Seeing you is nice.




Without losing any meaning at all, but the emotional emphasis is less immediate. Often in English precedence and immediacy is key, and people rush to get the most essential info out as early as possible.






share|improve this answer





















  • Please see my comment at Caleb's answer.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:03











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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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active

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active

oldest

votes








up vote
0
down vote














Why do you use such a structure?




To speak always in infinitives would be awkward!



The it in It is nice to see you is just a pronoun that takes the place of the thing being described, which is the experience to see you. The thing that a pronoun stands for is called its antecedent, and even though ante means "before," sometimes the pronoun is actually used before the antecedent. Sometimes the antecedent is implied instead of stated implicitly, especially when the meaning is commonly understood:




It is raining.




Here the it means "the weather" or "the current state of things outside." (This isn't limited to English -- in French one would say il pleut for "it's raining," where the il is again a pronoun.)



So the it in it is nice to see you is similarly a placeholder for something that will be explained shortly ("to see you"), and using it makes it possible to invert the order of the expression. That puts the emphasis on the description of the experience ("nice") instead of the thing being described. If you hear someone say that phrase, you might notice that they also put some audible emphasis on "nice"... it's natural to say (where boldface indicates emphasis):




It's nice to see you.




but strange to say:




It's nice to see you.







share|improve this answer























  • To speak in infinitives always would not be awkward if that were how English grammar worked. It just happens not to be. But they do it in many languages, like Spanish and Chinese (though they don’t conjugate verbs so it’s more ‘verb’ than ‘infinitive’), and going by the question, also Turkish. In languages where they do, it’s adding the expletive ‘it’ which is awkward, if not downright ungrammatical. So to say that the expletive construction is used because the alternative is awkward isn’t really saying anything. (Also, ‘it rains’ in French is just il pleut.)
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Oct 8 at 22:45










  • @JanusBahsJacquet It did occur to me as I was writing that it (there's that it again) might not be that we avoid it because it would be awkward, bur rather that it would be awkward because we usually avoid it. Even so, I think there's some value in the point that we don't do it because it sounds strange. Also: pardon my French! It (there we go again) has been a while. Corrected.
    – Caleb
    Oct 9 at 2:06










  • The dummy it has been dealt with on these pages earlier.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:03










  • @Kris When it is compared with ''dummy it'', it is seen that there is a different thing here. In the example which is ''It is raining,'', there is no such thing as interchangeable subjects. I know it is an important issue but the thing that I try to mention is a bit different. I discuss that there are two subjects having the same meaning.
    – Emir Arıcı
    Oct 9 at 18:10

















up vote
0
down vote














Why do you use such a structure?




To speak always in infinitives would be awkward!



The it in It is nice to see you is just a pronoun that takes the place of the thing being described, which is the experience to see you. The thing that a pronoun stands for is called its antecedent, and even though ante means "before," sometimes the pronoun is actually used before the antecedent. Sometimes the antecedent is implied instead of stated implicitly, especially when the meaning is commonly understood:




It is raining.




Here the it means "the weather" or "the current state of things outside." (This isn't limited to English -- in French one would say il pleut for "it's raining," where the il is again a pronoun.)



So the it in it is nice to see you is similarly a placeholder for something that will be explained shortly ("to see you"), and using it makes it possible to invert the order of the expression. That puts the emphasis on the description of the experience ("nice") instead of the thing being described. If you hear someone say that phrase, you might notice that they also put some audible emphasis on "nice"... it's natural to say (where boldface indicates emphasis):




It's nice to see you.




but strange to say:




It's nice to see you.







share|improve this answer























  • To speak in infinitives always would not be awkward if that were how English grammar worked. It just happens not to be. But they do it in many languages, like Spanish and Chinese (though they don’t conjugate verbs so it’s more ‘verb’ than ‘infinitive’), and going by the question, also Turkish. In languages where they do, it’s adding the expletive ‘it’ which is awkward, if not downright ungrammatical. So to say that the expletive construction is used because the alternative is awkward isn’t really saying anything. (Also, ‘it rains’ in French is just il pleut.)
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Oct 8 at 22:45










  • @JanusBahsJacquet It did occur to me as I was writing that it (there's that it again) might not be that we avoid it because it would be awkward, bur rather that it would be awkward because we usually avoid it. Even so, I think there's some value in the point that we don't do it because it sounds strange. Also: pardon my French! It (there we go again) has been a while. Corrected.
    – Caleb
    Oct 9 at 2:06










  • The dummy it has been dealt with on these pages earlier.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:03










  • @Kris When it is compared with ''dummy it'', it is seen that there is a different thing here. In the example which is ''It is raining,'', there is no such thing as interchangeable subjects. I know it is an important issue but the thing that I try to mention is a bit different. I discuss that there are two subjects having the same meaning.
    – Emir Arıcı
    Oct 9 at 18:10















up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote










Why do you use such a structure?




To speak always in infinitives would be awkward!



The it in It is nice to see you is just a pronoun that takes the place of the thing being described, which is the experience to see you. The thing that a pronoun stands for is called its antecedent, and even though ante means "before," sometimes the pronoun is actually used before the antecedent. Sometimes the antecedent is implied instead of stated implicitly, especially when the meaning is commonly understood:




It is raining.




Here the it means "the weather" or "the current state of things outside." (This isn't limited to English -- in French one would say il pleut for "it's raining," where the il is again a pronoun.)



So the it in it is nice to see you is similarly a placeholder for something that will be explained shortly ("to see you"), and using it makes it possible to invert the order of the expression. That puts the emphasis on the description of the experience ("nice") instead of the thing being described. If you hear someone say that phrase, you might notice that they also put some audible emphasis on "nice"... it's natural to say (where boldface indicates emphasis):




It's nice to see you.




but strange to say:




It's nice to see you.







share|improve this answer















Why do you use such a structure?




To speak always in infinitives would be awkward!



The it in It is nice to see you is just a pronoun that takes the place of the thing being described, which is the experience to see you. The thing that a pronoun stands for is called its antecedent, and even though ante means "before," sometimes the pronoun is actually used before the antecedent. Sometimes the antecedent is implied instead of stated implicitly, especially when the meaning is commonly understood:




It is raining.




Here the it means "the weather" or "the current state of things outside." (This isn't limited to English -- in French one would say il pleut for "it's raining," where the il is again a pronoun.)



So the it in it is nice to see you is similarly a placeholder for something that will be explained shortly ("to see you"), and using it makes it possible to invert the order of the expression. That puts the emphasis on the description of the experience ("nice") instead of the thing being described. If you hear someone say that phrase, you might notice that they also put some audible emphasis on "nice"... it's natural to say (where boldface indicates emphasis):




It's nice to see you.




but strange to say:




It's nice to see you.








share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited Oct 9 at 2:06

























answered Oct 8 at 22:02









Caleb

2,96011628




2,96011628












  • To speak in infinitives always would not be awkward if that were how English grammar worked. It just happens not to be. But they do it in many languages, like Spanish and Chinese (though they don’t conjugate verbs so it’s more ‘verb’ than ‘infinitive’), and going by the question, also Turkish. In languages where they do, it’s adding the expletive ‘it’ which is awkward, if not downright ungrammatical. So to say that the expletive construction is used because the alternative is awkward isn’t really saying anything. (Also, ‘it rains’ in French is just il pleut.)
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Oct 8 at 22:45










  • @JanusBahsJacquet It did occur to me as I was writing that it (there's that it again) might not be that we avoid it because it would be awkward, bur rather that it would be awkward because we usually avoid it. Even so, I think there's some value in the point that we don't do it because it sounds strange. Also: pardon my French! It (there we go again) has been a while. Corrected.
    – Caleb
    Oct 9 at 2:06










  • The dummy it has been dealt with on these pages earlier.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:03










  • @Kris When it is compared with ''dummy it'', it is seen that there is a different thing here. In the example which is ''It is raining,'', there is no such thing as interchangeable subjects. I know it is an important issue but the thing that I try to mention is a bit different. I discuss that there are two subjects having the same meaning.
    – Emir Arıcı
    Oct 9 at 18:10




















  • To speak in infinitives always would not be awkward if that were how English grammar worked. It just happens not to be. But they do it in many languages, like Spanish and Chinese (though they don’t conjugate verbs so it’s more ‘verb’ than ‘infinitive’), and going by the question, also Turkish. In languages where they do, it’s adding the expletive ‘it’ which is awkward, if not downright ungrammatical. So to say that the expletive construction is used because the alternative is awkward isn’t really saying anything. (Also, ‘it rains’ in French is just il pleut.)
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Oct 8 at 22:45










  • @JanusBahsJacquet It did occur to me as I was writing that it (there's that it again) might not be that we avoid it because it would be awkward, bur rather that it would be awkward because we usually avoid it. Even so, I think there's some value in the point that we don't do it because it sounds strange. Also: pardon my French! It (there we go again) has been a while. Corrected.
    – Caleb
    Oct 9 at 2:06










  • The dummy it has been dealt with on these pages earlier.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:03










  • @Kris When it is compared with ''dummy it'', it is seen that there is a different thing here. In the example which is ''It is raining,'', there is no such thing as interchangeable subjects. I know it is an important issue but the thing that I try to mention is a bit different. I discuss that there are two subjects having the same meaning.
    – Emir Arıcı
    Oct 9 at 18:10


















To speak in infinitives always would not be awkward if that were how English grammar worked. It just happens not to be. But they do it in many languages, like Spanish and Chinese (though they don’t conjugate verbs so it’s more ‘verb’ than ‘infinitive’), and going by the question, also Turkish. In languages where they do, it’s adding the expletive ‘it’ which is awkward, if not downright ungrammatical. So to say that the expletive construction is used because the alternative is awkward isn’t really saying anything. (Also, ‘it rains’ in French is just il pleut.)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
Oct 8 at 22:45




To speak in infinitives always would not be awkward if that were how English grammar worked. It just happens not to be. But they do it in many languages, like Spanish and Chinese (though they don’t conjugate verbs so it’s more ‘verb’ than ‘infinitive’), and going by the question, also Turkish. In languages where they do, it’s adding the expletive ‘it’ which is awkward, if not downright ungrammatical. So to say that the expletive construction is used because the alternative is awkward isn’t really saying anything. (Also, ‘it rains’ in French is just il pleut.)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
Oct 8 at 22:45












@JanusBahsJacquet It did occur to me as I was writing that it (there's that it again) might not be that we avoid it because it would be awkward, bur rather that it would be awkward because we usually avoid it. Even so, I think there's some value in the point that we don't do it because it sounds strange. Also: pardon my French! It (there we go again) has been a while. Corrected.
– Caleb
Oct 9 at 2:06




@JanusBahsJacquet It did occur to me as I was writing that it (there's that it again) might not be that we avoid it because it would be awkward, bur rather that it would be awkward because we usually avoid it. Even so, I think there's some value in the point that we don't do it because it sounds strange. Also: pardon my French! It (there we go again) has been a while. Corrected.
– Caleb
Oct 9 at 2:06












The dummy it has been dealt with on these pages earlier.
– Kris
Oct 9 at 11:03




The dummy it has been dealt with on these pages earlier.
– Kris
Oct 9 at 11:03












@Kris When it is compared with ''dummy it'', it is seen that there is a different thing here. In the example which is ''It is raining,'', there is no such thing as interchangeable subjects. I know it is an important issue but the thing that I try to mention is a bit different. I discuss that there are two subjects having the same meaning.
– Emir Arıcı
Oct 9 at 18:10






@Kris When it is compared with ''dummy it'', it is seen that there is a different thing here. In the example which is ''It is raining,'', there is no such thing as interchangeable subjects. I know it is an important issue but the thing that I try to mention is a bit different. I discuss that there are two subjects having the same meaning.
– Emir Arıcı
Oct 9 at 18:10














up vote
-1
down vote













This is a tricky bit of grammar most native speakers do not think about. Using the "it" first creates a void of meaning in the grammatical subject of the sentence. This causes focus to slip to the predicate for meaning. In your example, the first words that have meaning are "is nice". That is the initial impact of the sentence, its main emphasis.



Before we even know what the specific situation is, we know that "it is nice". This is an ideal way of phrasing things if you want to convey an emotional state or response quickly and clearly to somebody, and the context is either heavily implied or less important than conveying your emotions.



You could rephrase this sentence as




To see you is nice.




Or maybe




Seeing you is nice.




Without losing any meaning at all, but the emotional emphasis is less immediate. Often in English precedence and immediacy is key, and people rush to get the most essential info out as early as possible.






share|improve this answer





















  • Please see my comment at Caleb's answer.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:03















up vote
-1
down vote













This is a tricky bit of grammar most native speakers do not think about. Using the "it" first creates a void of meaning in the grammatical subject of the sentence. This causes focus to slip to the predicate for meaning. In your example, the first words that have meaning are "is nice". That is the initial impact of the sentence, its main emphasis.



Before we even know what the specific situation is, we know that "it is nice". This is an ideal way of phrasing things if you want to convey an emotional state or response quickly and clearly to somebody, and the context is either heavily implied or less important than conveying your emotions.



You could rephrase this sentence as




To see you is nice.




Or maybe




Seeing you is nice.




Without losing any meaning at all, but the emotional emphasis is less immediate. Often in English precedence and immediacy is key, and people rush to get the most essential info out as early as possible.






share|improve this answer





















  • Please see my comment at Caleb's answer.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:03













up vote
-1
down vote










up vote
-1
down vote









This is a tricky bit of grammar most native speakers do not think about. Using the "it" first creates a void of meaning in the grammatical subject of the sentence. This causes focus to slip to the predicate for meaning. In your example, the first words that have meaning are "is nice". That is the initial impact of the sentence, its main emphasis.



Before we even know what the specific situation is, we know that "it is nice". This is an ideal way of phrasing things if you want to convey an emotional state or response quickly and clearly to somebody, and the context is either heavily implied or less important than conveying your emotions.



You could rephrase this sentence as




To see you is nice.




Or maybe




Seeing you is nice.




Without losing any meaning at all, but the emotional emphasis is less immediate. Often in English precedence and immediacy is key, and people rush to get the most essential info out as early as possible.






share|improve this answer












This is a tricky bit of grammar most native speakers do not think about. Using the "it" first creates a void of meaning in the grammatical subject of the sentence. This causes focus to slip to the predicate for meaning. In your example, the first words that have meaning are "is nice". That is the initial impact of the sentence, its main emphasis.



Before we even know what the specific situation is, we know that "it is nice". This is an ideal way of phrasing things if you want to convey an emotional state or response quickly and clearly to somebody, and the context is either heavily implied or less important than conveying your emotions.



You could rephrase this sentence as




To see you is nice.




Or maybe




Seeing you is nice.




Without losing any meaning at all, but the emotional emphasis is less immediate. Often in English precedence and immediacy is key, and people rush to get the most essential info out as early as possible.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered Oct 8 at 21:52









Dmann

1,454119




1,454119












  • Please see my comment at Caleb's answer.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:03


















  • Please see my comment at Caleb's answer.
    – Kris
    Oct 9 at 11:03
















Please see my comment at Caleb's answer.
– Kris
Oct 9 at 11:03




Please see my comment at Caleb's answer.
– Kris
Oct 9 at 11:03


















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