If spectrum of a commutative ring is empty












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I have found this proposition: "If the spectrum of a commutative ring A is empty then A is the zero ring".
By absurdum, if A is not the zero ring, there exists in A an element $xne0$. By Zorn's lemma, there exists a maximal ideal M such that $xnotin M$. If A has not a unit, M is not necessarily a prime ideal... So I have no idea to complete the proof. May you help me with some hint?
Thank You.










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    I have found this proposition: "If the spectrum of a commutative ring A is empty then A is the zero ring".
    By absurdum, if A is not the zero ring, there exists in A an element $xne0$. By Zorn's lemma, there exists a maximal ideal M such that $xnotin M$. If A has not a unit, M is not necessarily a prime ideal... So I have no idea to complete the proof. May you help me with some hint?
    Thank You.










    share|cite|improve this question



























      2












      2








      2







      I have found this proposition: "If the spectrum of a commutative ring A is empty then A is the zero ring".
      By absurdum, if A is not the zero ring, there exists in A an element $xne0$. By Zorn's lemma, there exists a maximal ideal M such that $xnotin M$. If A has not a unit, M is not necessarily a prime ideal... So I have no idea to complete the proof. May you help me with some hint?
      Thank You.










      share|cite|improve this question















      I have found this proposition: "If the spectrum of a commutative ring A is empty then A is the zero ring".
      By absurdum, if A is not the zero ring, there exists in A an element $xne0$. By Zorn's lemma, there exists a maximal ideal M such that $xnotin M$. If A has not a unit, M is not necessarily a prime ideal... So I have no idea to complete the proof. May you help me with some hint?
      Thank You.







      commutative-algebra maximal-and-prime-ideals






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      edited 6 hours ago









      Eric Wofsey

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      179k12204331










      asked 8 hours ago









      Fabrixady

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      113






















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          I very much doubt you are working with rings lacking identity.



          Indeed, the statement is false for rings without identity: $2mathbb Z/4mathbb Z$ has no prime ideals.






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            $A$ has a unit in this context. This is necessary both to claim the existence of a maximal ideal using Zorn's lemma and to claim that a maximal ideal is prime.



            The example Wikipedia provides, is the ring whose underlying additive group is $mathbf Q$ with the usual addition and whose multiplication is $a cdot b = 0$ for all $a, b$. A subset $A subseteq mathbf Q$ is an ideal if and only if it is an additive subgroup of $mathbf{Q}$.



            It is clear that no proper ideal can be prime since if $x notin A$ then $x^2 = 0 in A$.



            Also, if $A$ is proper then $(mathbf{Q}/A,+)$ is a non-zero divisible group, which means it has a non-zero proper subgroup, which by correspondence means there is a larger proper ideal than $A$. So no proper ideals of $mathbf{Q}$ are maximal.






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              2 Answers
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              2 Answers
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              active

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              5














              I very much doubt you are working with rings lacking identity.



              Indeed, the statement is false for rings without identity: $2mathbb Z/4mathbb Z$ has no prime ideals.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                5














                I very much doubt you are working with rings lacking identity.



                Indeed, the statement is false for rings without identity: $2mathbb Z/4mathbb Z$ has no prime ideals.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  5












                  5








                  5






                  I very much doubt you are working with rings lacking identity.



                  Indeed, the statement is false for rings without identity: $2mathbb Z/4mathbb Z$ has no prime ideals.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  I very much doubt you are working with rings lacking identity.



                  Indeed, the statement is false for rings without identity: $2mathbb Z/4mathbb Z$ has no prime ideals.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 8 hours ago









                  rschwieb

                  105k1299243




                  105k1299243























                      3














                      $A$ has a unit in this context. This is necessary both to claim the existence of a maximal ideal using Zorn's lemma and to claim that a maximal ideal is prime.



                      The example Wikipedia provides, is the ring whose underlying additive group is $mathbf Q$ with the usual addition and whose multiplication is $a cdot b = 0$ for all $a, b$. A subset $A subseteq mathbf Q$ is an ideal if and only if it is an additive subgroup of $mathbf{Q}$.



                      It is clear that no proper ideal can be prime since if $x notin A$ then $x^2 = 0 in A$.



                      Also, if $A$ is proper then $(mathbf{Q}/A,+)$ is a non-zero divisible group, which means it has a non-zero proper subgroup, which by correspondence means there is a larger proper ideal than $A$. So no proper ideals of $mathbf{Q}$ are maximal.






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        3














                        $A$ has a unit in this context. This is necessary both to claim the existence of a maximal ideal using Zorn's lemma and to claim that a maximal ideal is prime.



                        The example Wikipedia provides, is the ring whose underlying additive group is $mathbf Q$ with the usual addition and whose multiplication is $a cdot b = 0$ for all $a, b$. A subset $A subseteq mathbf Q$ is an ideal if and only if it is an additive subgroup of $mathbf{Q}$.



                        It is clear that no proper ideal can be prime since if $x notin A$ then $x^2 = 0 in A$.



                        Also, if $A$ is proper then $(mathbf{Q}/A,+)$ is a non-zero divisible group, which means it has a non-zero proper subgroup, which by correspondence means there is a larger proper ideal than $A$. So no proper ideals of $mathbf{Q}$ are maximal.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          3












                          3








                          3






                          $A$ has a unit in this context. This is necessary both to claim the existence of a maximal ideal using Zorn's lemma and to claim that a maximal ideal is prime.



                          The example Wikipedia provides, is the ring whose underlying additive group is $mathbf Q$ with the usual addition and whose multiplication is $a cdot b = 0$ for all $a, b$. A subset $A subseteq mathbf Q$ is an ideal if and only if it is an additive subgroup of $mathbf{Q}$.



                          It is clear that no proper ideal can be prime since if $x notin A$ then $x^2 = 0 in A$.



                          Also, if $A$ is proper then $(mathbf{Q}/A,+)$ is a non-zero divisible group, which means it has a non-zero proper subgroup, which by correspondence means there is a larger proper ideal than $A$. So no proper ideals of $mathbf{Q}$ are maximal.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          $A$ has a unit in this context. This is necessary both to claim the existence of a maximal ideal using Zorn's lemma and to claim that a maximal ideal is prime.



                          The example Wikipedia provides, is the ring whose underlying additive group is $mathbf Q$ with the usual addition and whose multiplication is $a cdot b = 0$ for all $a, b$. A subset $A subseteq mathbf Q$ is an ideal if and only if it is an additive subgroup of $mathbf{Q}$.



                          It is clear that no proper ideal can be prime since if $x notin A$ then $x^2 = 0 in A$.



                          Also, if $A$ is proper then $(mathbf{Q}/A,+)$ is a non-zero divisible group, which means it has a non-zero proper subgroup, which by correspondence means there is a larger proper ideal than $A$. So no proper ideals of $mathbf{Q}$ are maximal.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












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                          answered 8 hours ago









                          Trevor Gunn

                          14.1k32046




                          14.1k32046






























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