Is “I cannot imagine a mechanism for X to happen, so X can never happen” a named logical fallacy?











up vote
6
down vote

favorite












I have encountered this reasoning quite frequently:



Somebody posits the hypothesis that an event X can happpen. A recent example I encountered was "vinegar and salt in the boiling water make eggs easier to peel afterwards", but I have seen many more. Another person imagines a way in which it could happen, judges that way to be impossible, and claims that X can never happen. In that example, the reply could be "salt and vinegar cannot cross the shell, so they will not make the egg easier to peel".



I have seen two ways in which this argument can be false. First, the replying person might just have wrong knowledge (maybe vinegar or salt can pass the shell?) - but I don't think this is a problem of the reasoning process, it is just correct reasoning based on a false assumption. What I find more interesting is that frequently, there can be other mechanisms for X to happen - maybe vinegar doesn't have to pass the shell to make the egg peelable? - but the person making the argument overlooks that possibility and goes from "the mechanism for X that I have in mind doesn't work" to the conclusion "X is completely impossible".



Another example would be people who insist that placebo does not help against pain, because per definition, it contains no chemically active substance that acts on pain receptors.



Has this flaw in reasoning received a recognizable name? I am asking specifically about fallacies as they apply to a formal reasoning process, not a general reason why arguing against vinegar in egg water would be a wrong position to take. (In fact, I don't even know if vinegar in egg water has any effect).










share|improve this question


















  • 1




    @Mr.Kennedy Please don't answer in comments. Also, that answer has been posted twice as an answer.
    – Duncan X Simpson
    2 hours ago










  • I don't think this is always a fallacy. Sure, the "I can't imagine it happening, therefore it can't happen" variant is, but if the person is a subject matter expert (on... vinegar and salt and eggshells, I guess, haha) who actually knows all of the mechanisms through which something could happen, it seems different. That's perhaps less applicable in biology than something more fixed, though.
    – Nic Hartley
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    The title and body seem to ask two different questions: the title asks about not being able to imagine any mechanism, while the body is about imagining a single mechanism and then disproving that. Which is it?
    – Todd Sewell
    2 hours ago

















up vote
6
down vote

favorite












I have encountered this reasoning quite frequently:



Somebody posits the hypothesis that an event X can happpen. A recent example I encountered was "vinegar and salt in the boiling water make eggs easier to peel afterwards", but I have seen many more. Another person imagines a way in which it could happen, judges that way to be impossible, and claims that X can never happen. In that example, the reply could be "salt and vinegar cannot cross the shell, so they will not make the egg easier to peel".



I have seen two ways in which this argument can be false. First, the replying person might just have wrong knowledge (maybe vinegar or salt can pass the shell?) - but I don't think this is a problem of the reasoning process, it is just correct reasoning based on a false assumption. What I find more interesting is that frequently, there can be other mechanisms for X to happen - maybe vinegar doesn't have to pass the shell to make the egg peelable? - but the person making the argument overlooks that possibility and goes from "the mechanism for X that I have in mind doesn't work" to the conclusion "X is completely impossible".



Another example would be people who insist that placebo does not help against pain, because per definition, it contains no chemically active substance that acts on pain receptors.



Has this flaw in reasoning received a recognizable name? I am asking specifically about fallacies as they apply to a formal reasoning process, not a general reason why arguing against vinegar in egg water would be a wrong position to take. (In fact, I don't even know if vinegar in egg water has any effect).










share|improve this question


















  • 1




    @Mr.Kennedy Please don't answer in comments. Also, that answer has been posted twice as an answer.
    – Duncan X Simpson
    2 hours ago










  • I don't think this is always a fallacy. Sure, the "I can't imagine it happening, therefore it can't happen" variant is, but if the person is a subject matter expert (on... vinegar and salt and eggshells, I guess, haha) who actually knows all of the mechanisms through which something could happen, it seems different. That's perhaps less applicable in biology than something more fixed, though.
    – Nic Hartley
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    The title and body seem to ask two different questions: the title asks about not being able to imagine any mechanism, while the body is about imagining a single mechanism and then disproving that. Which is it?
    – Todd Sewell
    2 hours ago















up vote
6
down vote

favorite









up vote
6
down vote

favorite











I have encountered this reasoning quite frequently:



Somebody posits the hypothesis that an event X can happpen. A recent example I encountered was "vinegar and salt in the boiling water make eggs easier to peel afterwards", but I have seen many more. Another person imagines a way in which it could happen, judges that way to be impossible, and claims that X can never happen. In that example, the reply could be "salt and vinegar cannot cross the shell, so they will not make the egg easier to peel".



I have seen two ways in which this argument can be false. First, the replying person might just have wrong knowledge (maybe vinegar or salt can pass the shell?) - but I don't think this is a problem of the reasoning process, it is just correct reasoning based on a false assumption. What I find more interesting is that frequently, there can be other mechanisms for X to happen - maybe vinegar doesn't have to pass the shell to make the egg peelable? - but the person making the argument overlooks that possibility and goes from "the mechanism for X that I have in mind doesn't work" to the conclusion "X is completely impossible".



Another example would be people who insist that placebo does not help against pain, because per definition, it contains no chemically active substance that acts on pain receptors.



Has this flaw in reasoning received a recognizable name? I am asking specifically about fallacies as they apply to a formal reasoning process, not a general reason why arguing against vinegar in egg water would be a wrong position to take. (In fact, I don't even know if vinegar in egg water has any effect).










share|improve this question













I have encountered this reasoning quite frequently:



Somebody posits the hypothesis that an event X can happpen. A recent example I encountered was "vinegar and salt in the boiling water make eggs easier to peel afterwards", but I have seen many more. Another person imagines a way in which it could happen, judges that way to be impossible, and claims that X can never happen. In that example, the reply could be "salt and vinegar cannot cross the shell, so they will not make the egg easier to peel".



I have seen two ways in which this argument can be false. First, the replying person might just have wrong knowledge (maybe vinegar or salt can pass the shell?) - but I don't think this is a problem of the reasoning process, it is just correct reasoning based on a false assumption. What I find more interesting is that frequently, there can be other mechanisms for X to happen - maybe vinegar doesn't have to pass the shell to make the egg peelable? - but the person making the argument overlooks that possibility and goes from "the mechanism for X that I have in mind doesn't work" to the conclusion "X is completely impossible".



Another example would be people who insist that placebo does not help against pain, because per definition, it contains no chemically active substance that acts on pain receptors.



Has this flaw in reasoning received a recognizable name? I am asking specifically about fallacies as they apply to a formal reasoning process, not a general reason why arguing against vinegar in egg water would be a wrong position to take. (In fact, I don't even know if vinegar in egg water has any effect).







logic fallacies






share|improve this question













share|improve this question











share|improve this question




share|improve this question










asked 7 hours ago









rumtscho

1464




1464








  • 1




    @Mr.Kennedy Please don't answer in comments. Also, that answer has been posted twice as an answer.
    – Duncan X Simpson
    2 hours ago










  • I don't think this is always a fallacy. Sure, the "I can't imagine it happening, therefore it can't happen" variant is, but if the person is a subject matter expert (on... vinegar and salt and eggshells, I guess, haha) who actually knows all of the mechanisms through which something could happen, it seems different. That's perhaps less applicable in biology than something more fixed, though.
    – Nic Hartley
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    The title and body seem to ask two different questions: the title asks about not being able to imagine any mechanism, while the body is about imagining a single mechanism and then disproving that. Which is it?
    – Todd Sewell
    2 hours ago
















  • 1




    @Mr.Kennedy Please don't answer in comments. Also, that answer has been posted twice as an answer.
    – Duncan X Simpson
    2 hours ago










  • I don't think this is always a fallacy. Sure, the "I can't imagine it happening, therefore it can't happen" variant is, but if the person is a subject matter expert (on... vinegar and salt and eggshells, I guess, haha) who actually knows all of the mechanisms through which something could happen, it seems different. That's perhaps less applicable in biology than something more fixed, though.
    – Nic Hartley
    2 hours ago






  • 1




    The title and body seem to ask two different questions: the title asks about not being able to imagine any mechanism, while the body is about imagining a single mechanism and then disproving that. Which is it?
    – Todd Sewell
    2 hours ago










1




1




@Mr.Kennedy Please don't answer in comments. Also, that answer has been posted twice as an answer.
– Duncan X Simpson
2 hours ago




@Mr.Kennedy Please don't answer in comments. Also, that answer has been posted twice as an answer.
– Duncan X Simpson
2 hours ago












I don't think this is always a fallacy. Sure, the "I can't imagine it happening, therefore it can't happen" variant is, but if the person is a subject matter expert (on... vinegar and salt and eggshells, I guess, haha) who actually knows all of the mechanisms through which something could happen, it seems different. That's perhaps less applicable in biology than something more fixed, though.
– Nic Hartley
2 hours ago




I don't think this is always a fallacy. Sure, the "I can't imagine it happening, therefore it can't happen" variant is, but if the person is a subject matter expert (on... vinegar and salt and eggshells, I guess, haha) who actually knows all of the mechanisms through which something could happen, it seems different. That's perhaps less applicable in biology than something more fixed, though.
– Nic Hartley
2 hours ago




1




1




The title and body seem to ask two different questions: the title asks about not being able to imagine any mechanism, while the body is about imagining a single mechanism and then disproving that. Which is it?
– Todd Sewell
2 hours ago






The title and body seem to ask two different questions: the title asks about not being able to imagine any mechanism, while the body is about imagining a single mechanism and then disproving that. Which is it?
– Todd Sewell
2 hours ago












4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
7
down vote













This fallacy is generally called argument from incredulity, or argument from failure of imagination. https://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Argument_from_incredulity It also is a subset of the argument from ignorance. Informal fallacies often overlap, and bleed into each other.



This fallacy is a common one,even among respected philosophers, as it is a characteristic of people that we are poor at identifying our own blindspots. And example of this mistake in a major philosopher is Jaegwon Kim's Pairing Problem argument, where point 3b and 4 is an argument from failure of imagination:





  1. For substance dualism to be intelligible, the mental and the physical must be able to causally interact.

  2. If there is causal interaction between any two events (say the
    mental act of the immaterial entity and the physical act of the material en
    tity), then there must be a pairing relation between them.

  3. In all physical cases, the specific spatial relations between relata allow us
    to pick out the appropriate pairing relation, either by having direct spatial relations or by being connected by a spatially contiguous chain of events. There seems to be nothing else that can play this role.

  4. Thus, it is highly likely pairing relations are only possible when both entities involved occupy specific spatial coordinates.

  5. The events in mental-to-physical causation in substance dualism do not both occupy specific spatial coordinates. Thus, there seems to be no way to construct the appropriate causal pairing relation in these cases.

  6. Thus, substance dualism is not intelligible.







share|improve this answer























  • I edited the formatting, but I don't know where "3b" came from. Perhaps it is a typo. Please roll back if I did this incorrectly.
    – Frank Hubeny
    3 hours ago










  • Point 3 has two sentences. The first is a generalized statement of facts. The second one is an argument from ignorance/failure-of-imagination, which then is repeated in 4. I hoped that by labeling it 3b, I would make it clear that the first sentence in 3 is not this fallacy. But ... good intentions are often not successful ...
    – Dcleve
    3 hours ago


















up vote
4
down vote













Argument from incredulity (aka: appeal to common sense) :




I cannot imagine how P could be true; therefore P must be false.







share|improve this answer




























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Because a claim is made from ignorance (or even partial ignorance) this argument could be classified as an argument from ignorance.



    However, not all arguments from ignorance are fallacious. Some may simply be weak arguments. Douglas Walton notes the following: (page 272)




    In an inquiry, the argumentum ad ignorantiam for a particular proposition becomes stronger and stronger as the knowledge cumulated by the inquiry becomes more and more firmly established. However, even at the beginning stages of an inquiry, where very little is known about a subject or hypothesis, the argumentum ad ignorantiam can still be a correct, even if weak, kind of argument. It can be a speculative argument that only yields a small degree of plausibility for its conclusion. Even so, in such a case, it can be a correct, as opposed to an erroneous argument.




    Where do such arguments go wrong? It is not just the presence of the argument but "its misemployment as a tactic to make an argument seem (unjustifiably) stronger than it really is." (page 274)




    Locke's insight brought out this tactical element very well when he wrote (Hamblin, 1970,60) that men use the argumentum ad ignorantiam to "drive" others and "force" them to "submit" in debate.




    Here is the question: Has this flaw in reasoning received a recognizable name? I am asking specifically about fallacies as they apply to a formal reasoning process...



    An appropriate name would likely be "argument from ignorance". Such an argument might be weak. For it to be considered erroneous or a fallacy, however, requires a context where the one using the argument from ignorance is driving others to submit in debate. Just using the argument by itself is not enough for there to be fallacious reasoning.





    Walton, D. (1996). Arguments from ignorance. Penn State Press.






    share|improve this answer




























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      The argument you discuss in the title is a form of argument from ignorance, but the example you give of




      Another person imagines a way in which it could happen, judges that way to be impossible, and claims that X can never happen.




      is a form of denying the antecedent: "If Y were true, then X could happen, but Y is not true, therefore X can't happen." Argument from ignorance and denying the antecedent are somewhat similar fallacies, and argument from ignorance could be considered to be a form of denying the antecedent: "If I knew of evidence that X is true, then I should accept X, but I don't know of such evidence, so I shouldn't accept X."






      share|improve this answer





















        Your Answer








        StackExchange.ready(function() {
        var channelOptions = {
        tags: "".split(" "),
        id: "265"
        };
        initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

        StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
        // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
        if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
        StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
        createEditor();
        });
        }
        else {
        createEditor();
        }
        });

        function createEditor() {
        StackExchange.prepareEditor({
        heartbeatType: 'answer',
        convertImagesToLinks: false,
        noModals: true,
        showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
        reputationToPostImages: null,
        bindNavPrevention: true,
        postfix: "",
        imageUploader: {
        brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
        contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
        allowUrls: true
        },
        noCode: true, onDemand: true,
        discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
        ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
        });


        }
        });














        draft saved

        draft discarded


















        StackExchange.ready(
        function () {
        StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fphilosophy.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f57825%2fis-i-cannot-imagine-a-mechanism-for-x-to-happen-so-x-can-never-happen-a-named%23new-answer', 'question_page');
        }
        );

        Post as a guest















        Required, but never shown

























        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes








        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes








        up vote
        7
        down vote













        This fallacy is generally called argument from incredulity, or argument from failure of imagination. https://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Argument_from_incredulity It also is a subset of the argument from ignorance. Informal fallacies often overlap, and bleed into each other.



        This fallacy is a common one,even among respected philosophers, as it is a characteristic of people that we are poor at identifying our own blindspots. And example of this mistake in a major philosopher is Jaegwon Kim's Pairing Problem argument, where point 3b and 4 is an argument from failure of imagination:





        1. For substance dualism to be intelligible, the mental and the physical must be able to causally interact.

        2. If there is causal interaction between any two events (say the
          mental act of the immaterial entity and the physical act of the material en
          tity), then there must be a pairing relation between them.

        3. In all physical cases, the specific spatial relations between relata allow us
          to pick out the appropriate pairing relation, either by having direct spatial relations or by being connected by a spatially contiguous chain of events. There seems to be nothing else that can play this role.

        4. Thus, it is highly likely pairing relations are only possible when both entities involved occupy specific spatial coordinates.

        5. The events in mental-to-physical causation in substance dualism do not both occupy specific spatial coordinates. Thus, there seems to be no way to construct the appropriate causal pairing relation in these cases.

        6. Thus, substance dualism is not intelligible.







        share|improve this answer























        • I edited the formatting, but I don't know where "3b" came from. Perhaps it is a typo. Please roll back if I did this incorrectly.
          – Frank Hubeny
          3 hours ago










        • Point 3 has two sentences. The first is a generalized statement of facts. The second one is an argument from ignorance/failure-of-imagination, which then is repeated in 4. I hoped that by labeling it 3b, I would make it clear that the first sentence in 3 is not this fallacy. But ... good intentions are often not successful ...
          – Dcleve
          3 hours ago















        up vote
        7
        down vote













        This fallacy is generally called argument from incredulity, or argument from failure of imagination. https://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Argument_from_incredulity It also is a subset of the argument from ignorance. Informal fallacies often overlap, and bleed into each other.



        This fallacy is a common one,even among respected philosophers, as it is a characteristic of people that we are poor at identifying our own blindspots. And example of this mistake in a major philosopher is Jaegwon Kim's Pairing Problem argument, where point 3b and 4 is an argument from failure of imagination:





        1. For substance dualism to be intelligible, the mental and the physical must be able to causally interact.

        2. If there is causal interaction between any two events (say the
          mental act of the immaterial entity and the physical act of the material en
          tity), then there must be a pairing relation between them.

        3. In all physical cases, the specific spatial relations between relata allow us
          to pick out the appropriate pairing relation, either by having direct spatial relations or by being connected by a spatially contiguous chain of events. There seems to be nothing else that can play this role.

        4. Thus, it is highly likely pairing relations are only possible when both entities involved occupy specific spatial coordinates.

        5. The events in mental-to-physical causation in substance dualism do not both occupy specific spatial coordinates. Thus, there seems to be no way to construct the appropriate causal pairing relation in these cases.

        6. Thus, substance dualism is not intelligible.







        share|improve this answer























        • I edited the formatting, but I don't know where "3b" came from. Perhaps it is a typo. Please roll back if I did this incorrectly.
          – Frank Hubeny
          3 hours ago










        • Point 3 has two sentences. The first is a generalized statement of facts. The second one is an argument from ignorance/failure-of-imagination, which then is repeated in 4. I hoped that by labeling it 3b, I would make it clear that the first sentence in 3 is not this fallacy. But ... good intentions are often not successful ...
          – Dcleve
          3 hours ago













        up vote
        7
        down vote










        up vote
        7
        down vote









        This fallacy is generally called argument from incredulity, or argument from failure of imagination. https://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Argument_from_incredulity It also is a subset of the argument from ignorance. Informal fallacies often overlap, and bleed into each other.



        This fallacy is a common one,even among respected philosophers, as it is a characteristic of people that we are poor at identifying our own blindspots. And example of this mistake in a major philosopher is Jaegwon Kim's Pairing Problem argument, where point 3b and 4 is an argument from failure of imagination:





        1. For substance dualism to be intelligible, the mental and the physical must be able to causally interact.

        2. If there is causal interaction between any two events (say the
          mental act of the immaterial entity and the physical act of the material en
          tity), then there must be a pairing relation between them.

        3. In all physical cases, the specific spatial relations between relata allow us
          to pick out the appropriate pairing relation, either by having direct spatial relations or by being connected by a spatially contiguous chain of events. There seems to be nothing else that can play this role.

        4. Thus, it is highly likely pairing relations are only possible when both entities involved occupy specific spatial coordinates.

        5. The events in mental-to-physical causation in substance dualism do not both occupy specific spatial coordinates. Thus, there seems to be no way to construct the appropriate causal pairing relation in these cases.

        6. Thus, substance dualism is not intelligible.







        share|improve this answer














        This fallacy is generally called argument from incredulity, or argument from failure of imagination. https://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Argument_from_incredulity It also is a subset of the argument from ignorance. Informal fallacies often overlap, and bleed into each other.



        This fallacy is a common one,even among respected philosophers, as it is a characteristic of people that we are poor at identifying our own blindspots. And example of this mistake in a major philosopher is Jaegwon Kim's Pairing Problem argument, where point 3b and 4 is an argument from failure of imagination:





        1. For substance dualism to be intelligible, the mental and the physical must be able to causally interact.

        2. If there is causal interaction between any two events (say the
          mental act of the immaterial entity and the physical act of the material en
          tity), then there must be a pairing relation between them.

        3. In all physical cases, the specific spatial relations between relata allow us
          to pick out the appropriate pairing relation, either by having direct spatial relations or by being connected by a spatially contiguous chain of events. There seems to be nothing else that can play this role.

        4. Thus, it is highly likely pairing relations are only possible when both entities involved occupy specific spatial coordinates.

        5. The events in mental-to-physical causation in substance dualism do not both occupy specific spatial coordinates. Thus, there seems to be no way to construct the appropriate causal pairing relation in these cases.

        6. Thus, substance dualism is not intelligible.








        share|improve this answer














        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer








        edited 3 hours ago









        Frank Hubeny

        6,33451344




        6,33451344










        answered 4 hours ago









        Dcleve

        953211




        953211












        • I edited the formatting, but I don't know where "3b" came from. Perhaps it is a typo. Please roll back if I did this incorrectly.
          – Frank Hubeny
          3 hours ago










        • Point 3 has two sentences. The first is a generalized statement of facts. The second one is an argument from ignorance/failure-of-imagination, which then is repeated in 4. I hoped that by labeling it 3b, I would make it clear that the first sentence in 3 is not this fallacy. But ... good intentions are often not successful ...
          – Dcleve
          3 hours ago


















        • I edited the formatting, but I don't know where "3b" came from. Perhaps it is a typo. Please roll back if I did this incorrectly.
          – Frank Hubeny
          3 hours ago










        • Point 3 has two sentences. The first is a generalized statement of facts. The second one is an argument from ignorance/failure-of-imagination, which then is repeated in 4. I hoped that by labeling it 3b, I would make it clear that the first sentence in 3 is not this fallacy. But ... good intentions are often not successful ...
          – Dcleve
          3 hours ago
















        I edited the formatting, but I don't know where "3b" came from. Perhaps it is a typo. Please roll back if I did this incorrectly.
        – Frank Hubeny
        3 hours ago




        I edited the formatting, but I don't know where "3b" came from. Perhaps it is a typo. Please roll back if I did this incorrectly.
        – Frank Hubeny
        3 hours ago












        Point 3 has two sentences. The first is a generalized statement of facts. The second one is an argument from ignorance/failure-of-imagination, which then is repeated in 4. I hoped that by labeling it 3b, I would make it clear that the first sentence in 3 is not this fallacy. But ... good intentions are often not successful ...
        – Dcleve
        3 hours ago




        Point 3 has two sentences. The first is a generalized statement of facts. The second one is an argument from ignorance/failure-of-imagination, which then is repeated in 4. I hoped that by labeling it 3b, I would make it clear that the first sentence in 3 is not this fallacy. But ... good intentions are often not successful ...
        – Dcleve
        3 hours ago










        up vote
        4
        down vote













        Argument from incredulity (aka: appeal to common sense) :




        I cannot imagine how P could be true; therefore P must be false.







        share|improve this answer

























          up vote
          4
          down vote













          Argument from incredulity (aka: appeal to common sense) :




          I cannot imagine how P could be true; therefore P must be false.







          share|improve this answer























            up vote
            4
            down vote










            up vote
            4
            down vote









            Argument from incredulity (aka: appeal to common sense) :




            I cannot imagine how P could be true; therefore P must be false.







            share|improve this answer












            Argument from incredulity (aka: appeal to common sense) :




            I cannot imagine how P could be true; therefore P must be false.








            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered 6 hours ago









            Mauro ALLEGRANZA

            27.2k21961




            27.2k21961






















                up vote
                2
                down vote













                Because a claim is made from ignorance (or even partial ignorance) this argument could be classified as an argument from ignorance.



                However, not all arguments from ignorance are fallacious. Some may simply be weak arguments. Douglas Walton notes the following: (page 272)




                In an inquiry, the argumentum ad ignorantiam for a particular proposition becomes stronger and stronger as the knowledge cumulated by the inquiry becomes more and more firmly established. However, even at the beginning stages of an inquiry, where very little is known about a subject or hypothesis, the argumentum ad ignorantiam can still be a correct, even if weak, kind of argument. It can be a speculative argument that only yields a small degree of plausibility for its conclusion. Even so, in such a case, it can be a correct, as opposed to an erroneous argument.




                Where do such arguments go wrong? It is not just the presence of the argument but "its misemployment as a tactic to make an argument seem (unjustifiably) stronger than it really is." (page 274)




                Locke's insight brought out this tactical element very well when he wrote (Hamblin, 1970,60) that men use the argumentum ad ignorantiam to "drive" others and "force" them to "submit" in debate.




                Here is the question: Has this flaw in reasoning received a recognizable name? I am asking specifically about fallacies as they apply to a formal reasoning process...



                An appropriate name would likely be "argument from ignorance". Such an argument might be weak. For it to be considered erroneous or a fallacy, however, requires a context where the one using the argument from ignorance is driving others to submit in debate. Just using the argument by itself is not enough for there to be fallacious reasoning.





                Walton, D. (1996). Arguments from ignorance. Penn State Press.






                share|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote













                  Because a claim is made from ignorance (or even partial ignorance) this argument could be classified as an argument from ignorance.



                  However, not all arguments from ignorance are fallacious. Some may simply be weak arguments. Douglas Walton notes the following: (page 272)




                  In an inquiry, the argumentum ad ignorantiam for a particular proposition becomes stronger and stronger as the knowledge cumulated by the inquiry becomes more and more firmly established. However, even at the beginning stages of an inquiry, where very little is known about a subject or hypothesis, the argumentum ad ignorantiam can still be a correct, even if weak, kind of argument. It can be a speculative argument that only yields a small degree of plausibility for its conclusion. Even so, in such a case, it can be a correct, as opposed to an erroneous argument.




                  Where do such arguments go wrong? It is not just the presence of the argument but "its misemployment as a tactic to make an argument seem (unjustifiably) stronger than it really is." (page 274)




                  Locke's insight brought out this tactical element very well when he wrote (Hamblin, 1970,60) that men use the argumentum ad ignorantiam to "drive" others and "force" them to "submit" in debate.




                  Here is the question: Has this flaw in reasoning received a recognizable name? I am asking specifically about fallacies as they apply to a formal reasoning process...



                  An appropriate name would likely be "argument from ignorance". Such an argument might be weak. For it to be considered erroneous or a fallacy, however, requires a context where the one using the argument from ignorance is driving others to submit in debate. Just using the argument by itself is not enough for there to be fallacious reasoning.





                  Walton, D. (1996). Arguments from ignorance. Penn State Press.






                  share|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote









                    Because a claim is made from ignorance (or even partial ignorance) this argument could be classified as an argument from ignorance.



                    However, not all arguments from ignorance are fallacious. Some may simply be weak arguments. Douglas Walton notes the following: (page 272)




                    In an inquiry, the argumentum ad ignorantiam for a particular proposition becomes stronger and stronger as the knowledge cumulated by the inquiry becomes more and more firmly established. However, even at the beginning stages of an inquiry, where very little is known about a subject or hypothesis, the argumentum ad ignorantiam can still be a correct, even if weak, kind of argument. It can be a speculative argument that only yields a small degree of plausibility for its conclusion. Even so, in such a case, it can be a correct, as opposed to an erroneous argument.




                    Where do such arguments go wrong? It is not just the presence of the argument but "its misemployment as a tactic to make an argument seem (unjustifiably) stronger than it really is." (page 274)




                    Locke's insight brought out this tactical element very well when he wrote (Hamblin, 1970,60) that men use the argumentum ad ignorantiam to "drive" others and "force" them to "submit" in debate.




                    Here is the question: Has this flaw in reasoning received a recognizable name? I am asking specifically about fallacies as they apply to a formal reasoning process...



                    An appropriate name would likely be "argument from ignorance". Such an argument might be weak. For it to be considered erroneous or a fallacy, however, requires a context where the one using the argument from ignorance is driving others to submit in debate. Just using the argument by itself is not enough for there to be fallacious reasoning.





                    Walton, D. (1996). Arguments from ignorance. Penn State Press.






                    share|improve this answer












                    Because a claim is made from ignorance (or even partial ignorance) this argument could be classified as an argument from ignorance.



                    However, not all arguments from ignorance are fallacious. Some may simply be weak arguments. Douglas Walton notes the following: (page 272)




                    In an inquiry, the argumentum ad ignorantiam for a particular proposition becomes stronger and stronger as the knowledge cumulated by the inquiry becomes more and more firmly established. However, even at the beginning stages of an inquiry, where very little is known about a subject or hypothesis, the argumentum ad ignorantiam can still be a correct, even if weak, kind of argument. It can be a speculative argument that only yields a small degree of plausibility for its conclusion. Even so, in such a case, it can be a correct, as opposed to an erroneous argument.




                    Where do such arguments go wrong? It is not just the presence of the argument but "its misemployment as a tactic to make an argument seem (unjustifiably) stronger than it really is." (page 274)




                    Locke's insight brought out this tactical element very well when he wrote (Hamblin, 1970,60) that men use the argumentum ad ignorantiam to "drive" others and "force" them to "submit" in debate.




                    Here is the question: Has this flaw in reasoning received a recognizable name? I am asking specifically about fallacies as they apply to a formal reasoning process...



                    An appropriate name would likely be "argument from ignorance". Such an argument might be weak. For it to be considered erroneous or a fallacy, however, requires a context where the one using the argument from ignorance is driving others to submit in debate. Just using the argument by itself is not enough for there to be fallacious reasoning.





                    Walton, D. (1996). Arguments from ignorance. Penn State Press.







                    share|improve this answer












                    share|improve this answer



                    share|improve this answer










                    answered 2 hours ago









                    Frank Hubeny

                    6,33451344




                    6,33451344






















                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        The argument you discuss in the title is a form of argument from ignorance, but the example you give of




                        Another person imagines a way in which it could happen, judges that way to be impossible, and claims that X can never happen.




                        is a form of denying the antecedent: "If Y were true, then X could happen, but Y is not true, therefore X can't happen." Argument from ignorance and denying the antecedent are somewhat similar fallacies, and argument from ignorance could be considered to be a form of denying the antecedent: "If I knew of evidence that X is true, then I should accept X, but I don't know of such evidence, so I shouldn't accept X."






                        share|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote













                          The argument you discuss in the title is a form of argument from ignorance, but the example you give of




                          Another person imagines a way in which it could happen, judges that way to be impossible, and claims that X can never happen.




                          is a form of denying the antecedent: "If Y were true, then X could happen, but Y is not true, therefore X can't happen." Argument from ignorance and denying the antecedent are somewhat similar fallacies, and argument from ignorance could be considered to be a form of denying the antecedent: "If I knew of evidence that X is true, then I should accept X, but I don't know of such evidence, so I shouldn't accept X."






                          share|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote









                            The argument you discuss in the title is a form of argument from ignorance, but the example you give of




                            Another person imagines a way in which it could happen, judges that way to be impossible, and claims that X can never happen.




                            is a form of denying the antecedent: "If Y were true, then X could happen, but Y is not true, therefore X can't happen." Argument from ignorance and denying the antecedent are somewhat similar fallacies, and argument from ignorance could be considered to be a form of denying the antecedent: "If I knew of evidence that X is true, then I should accept X, but I don't know of such evidence, so I shouldn't accept X."






                            share|improve this answer












                            The argument you discuss in the title is a form of argument from ignorance, but the example you give of




                            Another person imagines a way in which it could happen, judges that way to be impossible, and claims that X can never happen.




                            is a form of denying the antecedent: "If Y were true, then X could happen, but Y is not true, therefore X can't happen." Argument from ignorance and denying the antecedent are somewhat similar fallacies, and argument from ignorance could be considered to be a form of denying the antecedent: "If I knew of evidence that X is true, then I should accept X, but I don't know of such evidence, so I shouldn't accept X."







                            share|improve this answer












                            share|improve this answer



                            share|improve this answer










                            answered 31 mins ago









                            Acccumulation

                            46217




                            46217






























                                draft saved

                                draft discarded




















































                                Thanks for contributing an answer to Philosophy Stack Exchange!


                                • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                                But avoid



                                • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                                • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                                To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





                                Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


                                Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


                                • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                                But avoid



                                • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                                • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                                To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                                draft saved


                                draft discarded














                                StackExchange.ready(
                                function () {
                                StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fphilosophy.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f57825%2fis-i-cannot-imagine-a-mechanism-for-x-to-happen-so-x-can-never-happen-a-named%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                                }
                                );

                                Post as a guest















                                Required, but never shown





















































                                Required, but never shown














                                Required, but never shown












                                Required, but never shown







                                Required, but never shown

































                                Required, but never shown














                                Required, but never shown












                                Required, but never shown







                                Required, but never shown







                                Popular posts from this blog

                                What visual should I use to simply compare current year value vs last year in Power BI desktop

                                Alexandru Averescu

                                Trompette piccolo