ELI5: The Logic Behind Coefficient Estimation in OLS Regression











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Like a lot of people, I understand how to run a linear regression, I understand how to interpret its output, and I understand its limitations.



My understanding of the mathematical underpinnings of linear regression, however, are less developed. In particular, I do not understand the logic behind how we estimate beta using the following formula:



$$ beta = (X'X)^{-1}X'Y $$



Would anyone care to offer an intuitive explanation as to why/how this process works? For example, what function each step in the equation performs and why it is necessary.










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    How many five year olds have learned anything about algebra, let alone matrices? I don't think it's a feasible request. Better to be clear about what kind/level of explanation you realistically seek. It would also help to clarify what it is you seek (that's not especially clear); are you asking for some outline explanation of how the formula is derived, or why a formula something like that makes sense?
    – Glen_b
    5 hours ago

















up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1












Like a lot of people, I understand how to run a linear regression, I understand how to interpret its output, and I understand its limitations.



My understanding of the mathematical underpinnings of linear regression, however, are less developed. In particular, I do not understand the logic behind how we estimate beta using the following formula:



$$ beta = (X'X)^{-1}X'Y $$



Would anyone care to offer an intuitive explanation as to why/how this process works? For example, what function each step in the equation performs and why it is necessary.










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 3




    How many five year olds have learned anything about algebra, let alone matrices? I don't think it's a feasible request. Better to be clear about what kind/level of explanation you realistically seek. It would also help to clarify what it is you seek (that's not especially clear); are you asking for some outline explanation of how the formula is derived, or why a formula something like that makes sense?
    – Glen_b
    5 hours ago















up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1






1





Like a lot of people, I understand how to run a linear regression, I understand how to interpret its output, and I understand its limitations.



My understanding of the mathematical underpinnings of linear regression, however, are less developed. In particular, I do not understand the logic behind how we estimate beta using the following formula:



$$ beta = (X'X)^{-1}X'Y $$



Would anyone care to offer an intuitive explanation as to why/how this process works? For example, what function each step in the equation performs and why it is necessary.










share|cite|improve this question













Like a lot of people, I understand how to run a linear regression, I understand how to interpret its output, and I understand its limitations.



My understanding of the mathematical underpinnings of linear regression, however, are less developed. In particular, I do not understand the logic behind how we estimate beta using the following formula:



$$ beta = (X'X)^{-1}X'Y $$



Would anyone care to offer an intuitive explanation as to why/how this process works? For example, what function each step in the equation performs and why it is necessary.







regression theory






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asked 6 hours ago









Jack Bailey

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414








  • 3




    How many five year olds have learned anything about algebra, let alone matrices? I don't think it's a feasible request. Better to be clear about what kind/level of explanation you realistically seek. It would also help to clarify what it is you seek (that's not especially clear); are you asking for some outline explanation of how the formula is derived, or why a formula something like that makes sense?
    – Glen_b
    5 hours ago
















  • 3




    How many five year olds have learned anything about algebra, let alone matrices? I don't think it's a feasible request. Better to be clear about what kind/level of explanation you realistically seek. It would also help to clarify what it is you seek (that's not especially clear); are you asking for some outline explanation of how the formula is derived, or why a formula something like that makes sense?
    – Glen_b
    5 hours ago










3




3




How many five year olds have learned anything about algebra, let alone matrices? I don't think it's a feasible request. Better to be clear about what kind/level of explanation you realistically seek. It would also help to clarify what it is you seek (that's not especially clear); are you asking for some outline explanation of how the formula is derived, or why a formula something like that makes sense?
– Glen_b
5 hours ago






How many five year olds have learned anything about algebra, let alone matrices? I don't think it's a feasible request. Better to be clear about what kind/level of explanation you realistically seek. It would also help to clarify what it is you seek (that's not especially clear); are you asking for some outline explanation of how the formula is derived, or why a formula something like that makes sense?
– Glen_b
5 hours ago












1 Answer
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Suppose you have a model of the form:
$$X beta= Y$$
where X is a normal 2-D matrix, for ease of visualisation.
Now, if the matrix $X$ is square and invertible, then getting $beta$ is trivial:
$$beta= X^{-1}Y$$
And that would be the end of it.



If this is not the case, to get $beta$ you’ll have to find a way to “approximate” the result of an inverse matrix. $X^dagger = (X'X)^{-1}X'$ is called the (left)-pseudoinverse, and it has some nice properties that make it useful for this application.



In particular, it is unique, and $XX^dagger X=X$, so it kind of works like an inverse matrix would $(XX^{-1}X = XI = X)$. Also, for an invertible and square matrix (i.e. if the inverse matrix exists), it is equal to $X^{-1}$.



Also it gets the shape of the matrix right: If $X$ has order $n times m$, our pseudoinverse should be $m times n$ so we can multiply it with $Y$. This is achieved by multiplying $(X'X)^{-1}$, which is square $(m times m)$, with X' $(m times n)$.






share|cite|improve this answer










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Purple Rover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • Thanks for your time. This was a great explanation and really useful.
    – Jack Bailey
    2 hours ago











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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up vote
7
down vote













Suppose you have a model of the form:
$$X beta= Y$$
where X is a normal 2-D matrix, for ease of visualisation.
Now, if the matrix $X$ is square and invertible, then getting $beta$ is trivial:
$$beta= X^{-1}Y$$
And that would be the end of it.



If this is not the case, to get $beta$ you’ll have to find a way to “approximate” the result of an inverse matrix. $X^dagger = (X'X)^{-1}X'$ is called the (left)-pseudoinverse, and it has some nice properties that make it useful for this application.



In particular, it is unique, and $XX^dagger X=X$, so it kind of works like an inverse matrix would $(XX^{-1}X = XI = X)$. Also, for an invertible and square matrix (i.e. if the inverse matrix exists), it is equal to $X^{-1}$.



Also it gets the shape of the matrix right: If $X$ has order $n times m$, our pseudoinverse should be $m times n$ so we can multiply it with $Y$. This is achieved by multiplying $(X'X)^{-1}$, which is square $(m times m)$, with X' $(m times n)$.






share|cite|improve this answer










New contributor




Purple Rover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.


















  • Thanks for your time. This was a great explanation and really useful.
    – Jack Bailey
    2 hours ago















up vote
7
down vote













Suppose you have a model of the form:
$$X beta= Y$$
where X is a normal 2-D matrix, for ease of visualisation.
Now, if the matrix $X$ is square and invertible, then getting $beta$ is trivial:
$$beta= X^{-1}Y$$
And that would be the end of it.



If this is not the case, to get $beta$ you’ll have to find a way to “approximate” the result of an inverse matrix. $X^dagger = (X'X)^{-1}X'$ is called the (left)-pseudoinverse, and it has some nice properties that make it useful for this application.



In particular, it is unique, and $XX^dagger X=X$, so it kind of works like an inverse matrix would $(XX^{-1}X = XI = X)$. Also, for an invertible and square matrix (i.e. if the inverse matrix exists), it is equal to $X^{-1}$.



Also it gets the shape of the matrix right: If $X$ has order $n times m$, our pseudoinverse should be $m times n$ so we can multiply it with $Y$. This is achieved by multiplying $(X'X)^{-1}$, which is square $(m times m)$, with X' $(m times n)$.






share|cite|improve this answer










New contributor




Purple Rover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.


















  • Thanks for your time. This was a great explanation and really useful.
    – Jack Bailey
    2 hours ago













up vote
7
down vote










up vote
7
down vote









Suppose you have a model of the form:
$$X beta= Y$$
where X is a normal 2-D matrix, for ease of visualisation.
Now, if the matrix $X$ is square and invertible, then getting $beta$ is trivial:
$$beta= X^{-1}Y$$
And that would be the end of it.



If this is not the case, to get $beta$ you’ll have to find a way to “approximate” the result of an inverse matrix. $X^dagger = (X'X)^{-1}X'$ is called the (left)-pseudoinverse, and it has some nice properties that make it useful for this application.



In particular, it is unique, and $XX^dagger X=X$, so it kind of works like an inverse matrix would $(XX^{-1}X = XI = X)$. Also, for an invertible and square matrix (i.e. if the inverse matrix exists), it is equal to $X^{-1}$.



Also it gets the shape of the matrix right: If $X$ has order $n times m$, our pseudoinverse should be $m times n$ so we can multiply it with $Y$. This is achieved by multiplying $(X'X)^{-1}$, which is square $(m times m)$, with X' $(m times n)$.






share|cite|improve this answer










New contributor




Purple Rover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









Suppose you have a model of the form:
$$X beta= Y$$
where X is a normal 2-D matrix, for ease of visualisation.
Now, if the matrix $X$ is square and invertible, then getting $beta$ is trivial:
$$beta= X^{-1}Y$$
And that would be the end of it.



If this is not the case, to get $beta$ you’ll have to find a way to “approximate” the result of an inverse matrix. $X^dagger = (X'X)^{-1}X'$ is called the (left)-pseudoinverse, and it has some nice properties that make it useful for this application.



In particular, it is unique, and $XX^dagger X=X$, so it kind of works like an inverse matrix would $(XX^{-1}X = XI = X)$. Also, for an invertible and square matrix (i.e. if the inverse matrix exists), it is equal to $X^{-1}$.



Also it gets the shape of the matrix right: If $X$ has order $n times m$, our pseudoinverse should be $m times n$ so we can multiply it with $Y$. This is achieved by multiplying $(X'X)^{-1}$, which is square $(m times m)$, with X' $(m times n)$.







share|cite|improve this answer










New contributor




Purple Rover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this answer



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edited 5 hours ago





















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answered 5 hours ago









Purple Rover

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735




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Purple Rover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Purple Rover is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












  • Thanks for your time. This was a great explanation and really useful.
    – Jack Bailey
    2 hours ago


















  • Thanks for your time. This was a great explanation and really useful.
    – Jack Bailey
    2 hours ago
















Thanks for your time. This was a great explanation and really useful.
– Jack Bailey
2 hours ago




Thanks for your time. This was a great explanation and really useful.
– Jack Bailey
2 hours ago


















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